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CA Inter Taxation MCQ Test 1 (Income-tax + GST): answer key

Both Taxation sections on one paper bring together the Income-tax Law questions and the GST questions. It carries 16 questions for 30 marks with a time limit of 60 minutes, and it is set for CA Intermediate Group 1 students preparing for the January 2027 attempt. Income-tax chapters: Chapter 1: Basic Concepts, Chapter 2: Residence and Scope of Total Income, Chapter 3, Unit 1: Salaries and Chapter 6: Deductions from Gross Total Income. GST chapters: Chapter 2 - Supply under GST, Chapter 3 - Charge of GST, Chapter 4 - Place of Supply, Chapter 6 - Time of Supply, Chapter 9 - Registration and Chapter 5 - Exemptions from GST. The law basis is the Income-tax Act 1961 as amended by the Finance Act 2025 with notifications and circulars up to 30 June 2026 for assessment year 2026-27, and the CGST Act 2017, the IGST Act 2017 and the CGST Rules as amended by the Finance Act 2025 with notifications and circulars effective up to 28 February 2026. There is no negative marking, so a wrong answer costs nothing. Questions are prepared with AI tools and cross-checked by independent solvers; they are not reviewed by a Chartered Accountant.

16 questions across 10 chapters, 30 marks and 60 minutes in the timed paper. Every answer below is shown with the working behind it and the authority it rests on.

Law and standards used: Income-tax Act 1961 as amended by Finance Act 2025, notifications and circulars up to 30 June 2026, AY 2026-27; CGST Act 2017, IGST Act 2017 and CGST Rules as amended by Finance Act 2025, notifications and circulars effective up to 28 February 2026.

Questions
16
Marks
30
Time limit
60 minutes
Attempt
January 2027
Group
Group 1
Law basis
Income-tax Act 1961 as amended by Finance Act 2025, notifications and circulars up to 30 June 2026, AY 2026-27; CGST Act 2017, IGST Act 2017 and CGST Rules as amended by Finance Act 2025, notifications and circulars effective up to 28 February 2026
Content as of
2026-10-31

Chapters covered

Questions, answers and explanations

Question 1 · 2 marks · Chapter 3, Unit 1: Salaries · easy

Scenario. During the previous year 2025-26, Mr. Aarav Mehta, an employee of a private company, received basic salary of ₹50,000 per month, dearness allowance of ₹10,000 per month (forming part of pay for retirement benefits), and an annual bonus of ₹50,000. He is neither a director nor an employee having substantial interest in the company. Throughout the year, his employer provided him with an employer-owned motor car having engine capacity exceeding 1.6 litres, together with a chauffeur, for both official and personal purposes. The employer bears all running and maintenance expenses of the car and did not recover any amount from him for this facility. He received no other allowances or perquisites. Aarav pays tax under the default tax regime under section 115BAC. Assume that he was employed throughout the previous year and that no other deduction or exemption is applicable.

Considering Notification No. 133/2025 dated 18 August 2025, whether Aarav qualifies as a specified employee under section 17(2)(iii) for taxation of the motor-car facility provided by his employer?

  1. No, because the prescribed salary limit continues to be ₹2,50,000.
  2. No, because his salary must exceed ₹10,00,000.
  3. No, because only directors and employees having substantial interest can be specified employees.
  4. Yes, because his salary, excluding non-monetary benefits, exceeds the prescribed limit of ₹4,00,000. (correct answer)

Answer: D — Yes, because his salary, excluding non-monetary benefits, exceeds the prescribed limit of ₹4,00,000.

Explanation. Notification No. 133/2025 inserted Rule 3C prescribing ₹4,00,000 as the salary threshold for determining specified employees under section 17(2)(iii). Aarav's salary before including the motor-car facility is ₹7,70,000 (₹6,00,000 basic salary + ₹1,20,000 dearness allowance + ₹50,000 bonus). He therefore exceeds the prescribed threshold. The provision also independently covers directors and employees having substantial interest, but neither condition is necessary here.

Where it goes wrong. Applying the earlier salary threshold instead of the ₹4,00,000 limit introduced by Notification No. 133/2025.

Authority. Income-tax Act, 1961, section 17(2)(iii); Income-tax Rules, 1962, Rule 3C, inserted through Notification No. 133/2025 dated 18.08.2025; ICAI January 2027 Statutory Update, Chapter 3, Unit 1: Salaries

Question 2 · 2 marks · Chapter 3, Unit 1: Salaries · medium

What is the taxable value of the motor-car perquisite provided to Aarav for the previous year 2025-26? The vehicle is employer-owned, its engine capacity exceeds 1.6 litres, and a chauffeur is provided for both official and personal use. Ignore rounding.

  1. ₹28,800
  2. ₹39,600 (correct answer)
  3. ₹21,600
  4. ₹43,200

Answer: B — ₹39,600

Working. Monthly perquisite value = ₹2,400 + ₹900 for chauffeur = ₹3,300. Annual perquisite value = ₹3,300 × 12 months = ₹39,600.

Explanation. Under Rule 3(2), where an employer-owned motor car with engine capacity exceeding 1.6 litres is used for both official and personal purposes and a chauffeur is provided, the prescribed monthly perquisite value is ₹3,300. The vehicle was available throughout all 12 months. Therefore, the taxable value is ₹3,300 × 12 = ₹39,600. The tempting ₹28,800 option applies the monthly value of ₹2,400 applicable where a chauffeur is not provided.

Where it goes wrong. Using the monthly valuation applicable to a motor car without a chauffeur or to a vehicle with a different engine capacity.

Authority. Income-tax Rules, 1962, Rule 3(2); ICAI Study Material, July 2025, Chapter 3, Unit 1: Salaries, motor-car perquisite valuation; ICAI Study Material, July 2025, Chapter 3, Unit 1, illustration concerning employer-owned motor cars

Question 3 · 2 marks · Chapter 3, Unit 1: Salaries · hard

Compute the income chargeable under the head Salaries in Aarav's hands for AY 2026-27 under the default tax regime. Assume the standard deduction is available and no other deduction applies. Ignore rounding.

  1. ₹7,59,600
  2. ₹6,95,000
  3. ₹7,34,600 (correct answer)
  4. ₹8,09,600

Answer: C — ₹7,34,600

Working. Basic salary = ₹50,000 × 12 = ₹6,00,000. Dearness allowance = ₹10,000 × 12 = ₹1,20,000. Annual bonus = ₹50,000. Motor-car perquisite = ₹39,600. Gross salary = ₹6,00,000 + ₹1,20,000 + ₹50,000 + ₹39,600 = ₹8,09,600. Less: Standard deduction under section 16(ia) = ₹75,000. Income chargeable under Salaries = ₹8,09,600 − ₹75,000 = ₹7,34,600.

Explanation. Aarav's gross salary includes basic pay, dearness allowance, bonus and the taxable motor-car perquisite. These aggregate to ₹8,09,600. Under the default tax regime, the standard deduction under section 16(ia) is ₹75,000. Consequently, taxable salary is ₹7,34,600. Option (a) is a tempting error because it deducts only ₹50,000, the standard deduction applicable under the normal tax regime rather than the default regime.

Where it goes wrong. Applying the optional-regime standard deduction of ₹50,000 instead of ₹75,000, or omitting the motor-car perquisite.

Authority. Income-tax Act, 1961, section 16(ia); Income-tax Act, 1961, section 115BAC; Income-tax Rules, 1962, Rule 3(2); ICAI Study Material, July 2025, Chapter 3, Unit 1: Salaries

Question 4 · 2 marks · Chapter 2: Residence and Scope of Total Income · easy

Scenario. Ms. Leena Kapoor is a Canadian citizen and a person of Indian origin. She came to India on a visit during the previous year 2025-26 and stayed for 125 days. Her total stay in India during the four previous years immediately preceding 2025-26 was 400 days. During 2025-26, she earned salary of ₹9,00,000 from employment in Canada for services rendered and received there. She also earned ₹6,00,000 from a consultancy profession set up in India, although the services were rendered and the fees received in Canada. Further, she earned gross rental income of ₹6,00,000 from an Indian house property, dividend income of ₹1,50,000 from an Indian company and business profits of ₹4,00,000 from a business carried on in India. Assume the house property qualifies for the standard deduction under section 24(a), and no other deductions or exemptions are applicable.

Determine Leena's residential status for AY 2026-27 under the Income-tax Act, 1961.

  1. Non-resident, because her stay in India is less than 182 days.
  2. Deemed resident under section 6(1A), because her income exceeds ₹15,00,000.
  3. Resident but not ordinarily resident, because she satisfies the special 120-day visit condition and the applicable preceding-stay condition. (correct answer)
  4. Resident and ordinarily resident, because her stay during the preceding four years exceeds 365 days.

Answer: C — Resident but not ordinarily resident, because she satisfies the special 120-day visit condition and the applicable preceding-stay condition.

Working. Stay during PY 2025-26 = 125 days. Stay during preceding four previous years = 400 days. Non-foreign-source income = ₹15,70,000, exceeding ₹15,00,000. The 120-day condition and 365-day preceding-stay condition are satisfied. Residential status = Resident but not ordinarily resident (RNOR).

Explanation. An Indian citizen or person of Indian origin visiting India with non-foreign-source income exceeding ₹15 lakh can become resident if the relevant-year stay is at least 120 days but less than 182 days and the preceding four-year stay is at least 365 days. Leena satisfies these conditions with 125 days and 400 days respectively. Such an individual is treated as RNOR under section 6(6). Section 6(1A) does not apply because Leena is not an Indian citizen.

Where it goes wrong. Applying the ordinary 182-day condition without considering the special visit provision, or incorrectly applying deemed residence to a person of Indian origin who is not an Indian citizen.

Authority. Income-tax Act, 1961, section 6(1); Income-tax Act, 1961, section 6(6); ICAI Study Material, July 2025, Chapter 2: Residence and Scope of Total Income, residential status of individuals

Question 5 · 2 marks · Chapter 2: Residence and Scope of Total Income · medium

Which of the following correctly describes the tax treatment of Leena's Canadian salary and consultancy income under the scope-of-total-income provisions?

  1. Canadian salary is not taxable, but consultancy income is taxable because it is derived from a profession set up in India. (correct answer)
  2. Neither income is taxable in India because both were received outside India.
  3. Both incomes are taxable in India because Leena is a resident.
  4. Canadian salary is taxable, but consultancy income is not taxable because the services were rendered outside India.

Answer: A — Canadian salary is not taxable, but consultancy income is taxable because it is derived from a profession set up in India.

Explanation. An RNOR is taxable on income received or deemed to be received in India, income accruing or deemed to accrue in India, and foreign income derived from a business controlled in or profession set up in India. Leena's Canadian employment salary is earned and received outside India and has no stated Indian connection. Her consultancy income, however, is derived from a profession set up in India and is therefore included. Foreign receipt alone does not exclude this professional income.

Where it goes wrong. Treating all foreign-received income as exempt for an RNOR, without applying the exception for a business controlled in or profession set up in India.

Authority. Income-tax Act, 1961, section 5(1); Income-tax Act, 1961, section 6(6); ICAI Study Material, July 2025, Chapter 2: Residence and Scope of Total Income, scope of total income of RNOR

Question 6 · 2 marks · Chapter 2: Residence and Scope of Total Income · hard

Compute Leena's total income chargeable to tax in India for AY 2026-27, considering her residential status. Apply the deduction under section 24(a) to gross rental income. Assume no other deductions or exemptions. Ignore rounding.

  1. ₹9,70,000
  2. ₹15,70,000 (correct answer)
  3. ₹14,20,000
  4. ₹24,70,000

Answer: B — ₹15,70,000

Working. Consultancy income from profession set up in India = ₹6,00,000. House-property income: Gross annual income = ₹6,00,000. Less: Standard deduction under section 24(a), 30% = ₹1,80,000. Income from house property = ₹4,20,000. Indian dividend income = ₹1,50,000. Indian business profits = ₹4,00,000. Canadian employment salary = Excluded. Total income = ₹6,00,000 + ₹4,20,000 + ₹1,50,000 + ₹4,00,000 = ₹15,70,000.

Explanation. As an RNOR, Leena's foreign employment salary is excluded because it accrues and is received outside India and is not connected with a business controlled in or profession set up in India. Her consultancy income from a profession set up in India remains taxable. Indian house-property income is taxable after the 30% deduction, and Indian dividend and business profits are also taxable. Their aggregate is ₹15,70,000. Option (d) incorrectly includes the Canadian employment salary.

Where it goes wrong. Including foreign employment salary in RNOR income or overlooking the 30% standard deduction from house-property income.

Authority. Income-tax Act, 1961, section 5(1); Income-tax Act, 1961, section 24(a); Income-tax Act, 1961, section 6(6); ICAI Study Material, July 2025, Chapter 2: Residence and Scope of Total Income, scope of total income and computation illustrations

Question 7 · 2 marks · Chapter 6: Deductions from Gross Total Income · easy

Scenario. Mr. Dev Sharma, an individual, exercises the option to shift out of the default tax regime for AY 2026-27. During FY 2025-26, he contributed ₹80,000 to PPF, paid ₹45,000 as tuition fees for his two children pursuing full-time education in India, and repaid ₹40,000 towards the principal of a housing loan taken from an eligible financial institution. All payments satisfy the applicable conditions for deduction under section 80C.

What is the maximum deduction allowable to Dev under section 80C for AY 2026-27?

  1. ₹50,000
  2. ₹1,30,000
  3. ₹1,65,000
  4. ₹1,50,000 (correct answer)

Answer: D — ₹1,50,000

Working. PPF contribution = ₹80,000. Eligible tuition fees = ₹45,000. Eligible housing-loan principal repayment = ₹40,000. Aggregate eligible payments = ₹80,000 + ₹45,000 + ₹40,000 = ₹1,65,000. Maximum deduction under section 80CCE = ₹1,50,000. Allowable deduction under section 80C = Lower of ₹1,65,000 and ₹1,50,000 = ₹1,50,000.

Explanation. Contributions to PPF, eligible tuition fees for up to two children pursuing full-time education in India, and repayment of eligible housing-loan principal qualify for deduction under section 80C. Dev's eligible payments total ₹1,65,000. However, section 80CCE restricts the aggregate deduction under sections 80C, 80CCC and 80CCD(1) to ₹1,50,000. Therefore, the allowable deduction under section 80C is ₹1,50,000.

Where it goes wrong. Claiming the entire eligible payment of ₹1,65,000 without applying the overall ceiling of ₹1,50,000.

Authority. Income-tax Act, 1961, section 80C; Income-tax Act, 1961, section 80CCE; ICAI Study Material, July 2025, Chapter 6: Deductions from Gross Total Income, deduction under section 80C

Question 8 · 1 marks · Chapter 1: Basic Concepts · medium

Scenario. Ms. Ira earns total income of ₹50,40,000 for AY 2026-27 and is taxable under the default tax regime under section 115BAC. Her entire income is ordinary income taxable at the applicable slab rates. She has no special-rate income, and no rebate or other tax adjustment is available. Determine the marginal relief applicable in respect of surcharge. All amounts are in rupees.

Calculate the marginal relief available to Ira in respect of surcharge. Apply the applicable default-regime slabs and surcharge rates for AY 2026-27. Ignore rounding.

  1. ₹81,200 (correct answer)
  2. ₹1,09,200
  3. ₹1,21,200
  4. ₹40,000

Answer: A — ₹81,200

Working. Step 1: Tax on ₹50,40,000 under default-regime slabs: ₹4,00,000–₹8,00,000 @ 5% = ₹20,000. ₹8,00,000–₹12,00,000 @ 10% = ₹40,000. ₹12,00,000–₹16,00,000 @ 15% = ₹60,000. ₹16,00,000–₹20,00,000 @ 20% = ₹80,000. ₹20,00,000–₹24,00,000 @ 25% = ₹1,00,000. ₹24,00,000–₹50,40,000 @ 30% = ₹7,92,000. Total income-tax = ₹10,92,000. Step 2: Add surcharge @ 10% = ₹1,09,200. Tax including surcharge = ₹12,01,200. Step 3: Tax on ₹50,00,000 = ₹10,80,000. Excess tax = ₹12,01,200 − ₹10,80,000 = ₹1,21,200. Step 4: Income exceeding ₹50,00,000 = ₹40,000. Tax payable after marginal relief = ₹10,80,000 + ₹40,000 = ₹11,20,000. Marginal relief = ₹12,01,200 − ₹11,20,000 = ₹81,200 (equivalently ₹1,21,200 − ₹40,000).

Explanation. At total income of ₹50,40,000, tax is ₹10,92,000 and surcharge at 10% is ₹1,09,200, so tax with surcharge is ₹12,01,200. Marginal relief limits the total payable to the tax on ₹50,00,000 (₹10,80,000) plus the income earned above ₹50 lakh (₹40,000), i.e. ₹11,20,000. Relief is therefore ₹12,01,200 − ₹11,20,000 = ₹81,200. Option (c) is the extra tax before relief, and option (d) is only the excess income.

Where it goes wrong. Confusing the excess tax before marginal relief with the actual marginal relief, or deducting the excess income incorrectly.

Authority. Income-tax Act, 1961, section 115BAC; Finance Act, 2025, First Schedule, Part I, applicable tax rates and surcharge for AY 2026-27; ICAI Study Material, July 2025, Chapter 1: Basic Concepts, surcharge and marginal relief under the default tax regime

Question 9 · 2 marks · Supply under GST (Chapter 2) · easy

Scenario. Vistara Components Pvt. Ltd. is registered in Indore, Madhya Pradesh and holds a separate GST registration in Jaipur, Rajasthan under the same PAN. In FY 2025-26, its Indore unit (i) transfers components worth ₹7,80,000 to the Jaipur registration for business use without consideration; (ii) gives one employee gifts worth ₹50,000 in total, with no other gifts to that employee during the year; and (iii) sells a production machine for one price with installation and commissioning, which are ordinarily bundled with the machine and ancillary to it. In a separate sale, Vistara invoices goods to a buyer whose principal place of business is Jaipur; before the movement ends, on the buyer's instruction, Vistara delivers the goods directly to an independent factory in Pune. Vistara also sells a packaging machine assembled at the buyer’s site in Surat. Vistara operates Vistara Local, an electronic commerce platform. On 10 October 2025, an independent provider with aggregate turnover of ₹14,00,000, not liable for registration under section 22(1), supplies local delivery services through that platform. Vistara also receives legal services from an individual advocate. Its aggregate turnover in the preceding financial year was ₹80,00,000; the advocate issues the invoice on 1 December 2025, and the payment is recorded and debited from Vistara’s bank account on 5 February 2026.

With reference to the gifts given to the employee, which statement correctly describes their treatment under GST for FY 2025-26?

  1. The gifts constitute supply because the exclusion applies only when their value is below ₹50,000.
  2. The gifts are not treated as supply because their aggregate value for the employee does not exceed ₹50,000 during the financial year. (correct answer)
  3. The gifts constitute supply because every transaction between an employer and employee is taxable.
  4. The gifts are not treated as supply only when the employee is not a related person.

Answer: B — The gifts are not treated as supply because their aggregate value for the employee does not exceed ₹50,000 during the financial year.

Explanation. Schedule I, paragraph 2, treats supplies between related persons in the course or furtherance of business as supply even without consideration. However, its proviso excludes gifts by an employer to an employee not exceeding ₹50,000 in value during a financial year. Here, the aggregate value is exactly ₹50,000. Option a incorrectly interprets the expression not exceeding as strictly below ₹50,000.

Where it goes wrong. Confusing not exceeding ₹50,000 with strictly less than ₹50,000.

Authority. Section 7(1)(c) of the CGST Act; Paragraph 2 of Schedule I to the CGST Act, including its proviso

Question 10 · 2 marks · Supply under GST (Chapter 2) · medium

How should the transfer of components from Vistara's Indore registration to its Jaipur registration be treated under GST?

  1. It is a supply only if the transferred components have a value exceeding ₹50,000.
  2. It is not a supply because both registrations belong to the same legal entity and share one PAN.
  3. It is not a supply because no consideration has been charged between the two registrations.
  4. It is a supply under Schedule I because the two registrations are distinct persons and the transfer is in the course or furtherance of business. (correct answer)

Answer: D — It is a supply under Schedule I because the two registrations are distinct persons and the transfer is in the course or furtherance of business.

Explanation. Under section 25, registrations obtained by the same person in different States are treated as registrations of distinct persons. Paragraph 2 of Schedule I specifically covers supplies between distinct persons made in the course or furtherance of business, even without consideration. Therefore, the inter-registration transfer is a supply. Option b incorrectly assumes that having a common PAN prevents separate GST registrations from being treated as distinct persons.

Where it goes wrong. Confusing a common PAN and legal entity with the distinct-person treatment of separate State registrations.

Authority. Section 7(1)(c) of the CGST Act; Section 25(4) and Section 25(5) of the CGST Act; Paragraph 2 of Schedule I to the CGST Act

Question 11 · 2 marks · Supply under GST (Chapter 2) · medium

Considering the ordinary business practice and the relationship between the machine and the ancillary activities, how should the production machine package be classified?

  1. Two independent supplies, because installation and commissioning are services whereas the machine is goods.
  2. Mixed supply, because more than one taxable supply is included for a single price.
  3. Composite supply, with the production machine as the principal supply and the tax treatment determined by the rate applicable to that principal supply. (correct answer)
  4. Composite supply, with installation and commissioning necessarily constituting the principal supply.

Answer: C — Composite supply, with the production machine as the principal supply and the tax treatment determined by the rate applicable to that principal supply.

Explanation. A composite supply comprises two or more taxable supplies that are naturally bundled and supplied together in the ordinary course of business, with one constituting the principal supply. Here, the machine is the predominant element, while installation and commissioning are ancillary. Section 8(a) consequently applies the tax treatment of the principal supply. Option b confuses a single price with a mixed supply, overlooking the natural bundling of the package.

Where it goes wrong. Assuming that every package sold for one price is a mixed supply.

Authority. Section 2(30) of the CGST Act; Section 2(90) of the CGST Act; Section 8(a) of the CGST Act

Question 12 · 2 marks · Place of Supply (Chapter 4) · medium

Identify the respective places of supply for (i) the goods directed by the Jaipur buyer to Pune and (ii) the packaging machine assembled at the buyer's site in Surat.

  1. Pune and Surat, respectively.
  2. Pune and Indore, respectively.
  3. Jaipur and Surat, respectively. (correct answer)
  4. Jaipur and Indore, respectively.

Answer: C — Jaipur and Surat, respectively.

Explanation. Under section 10(1)(b) of the IGST Act, where goods are delivered to another person on the direction of a third person before or during movement, the third person is deemed to have received the goods. The place of supply is the principal place of business of that third person, Jaipur. Under section 10(1)(d), goods assembled or installed at a site have their place of supply at that installation or assembly site, Surat. Option a incorrectly uses the physical delivery address for the first transaction.

Where it goes wrong. Applying the ordinary movement-of-goods rule instead of the bill-to-ship-to rule.

Authority. Section 10(1)(b) of the IGST Act; Section 10(1)(d) of the IGST Act

Question 13 · 2 marks · Charge of GST (Chapter 3) · hard

Who is liable to pay GST on the local delivery service supplied through Vistara Local on 10 October 2025?

  1. No person, because all local delivery services by road remain exempt from GST.
  2. Vistara Components Pvt. Ltd., as the electronic commerce operator, under section 9(5). (correct answer)
  3. The customer receiving the delivery service, under the reverse charge mechanism.
  4. The independent delivery provider, because the actual service provider always pays GST.

Answer: B — Vistara Components Pvt. Ltd., as the electronic commerce operator, under section 9(5).

Explanation. The September 2026 statutory update includes local delivery services supplied through an electronic commerce operator in the notified categories under section 9(5), effective from 22 September 2025. The exception applies where the underlying service provider is liable for registration under section 22(1). Since the provider in this case is not liable for registration, Vistara, as the electronic commerce operator, pays the tax. Option a overlooks the specific exclusion of local delivery services from the general road-transport exemption.

Where it goes wrong. Overlooking the registration-based exception in the updated list of services taxable through an electronic commerce operator.

Authority. Section 9(5) of the CGST Act; Notification No. 17/2017 CT(R) dated 28.06.2017, as amended by Notification No. 17/2025 CT(R) dated 17.09.2025; September 2026 Statutory Update, Chapter 3, effective 22.09.2025

Question 14 · 2 marks · Time of Supply (Chapter 6) · hard

Determine the time of supply of the legal services received by Vistara under the reverse charge mechanism, considering the invoice and payment dates given in the scenario.

  1. 31 January 2026. (correct answer)
  2. 2 March 2026.
  3. 1 December 2025.
  4. 5 February 2026.

Answer: A — 31 January 2026.

Working. Invoice date: 1 December 2025. Exclude the invoice date while counting 60 days. From 2 December to 31 December = 30 days. From 1 January to 30 January = 30 days. Total = 60 days. The date immediately following this 60-day period is 31 January 2026. Payment is recorded and debited on 5 February 2026. Comparing the two dates, 31 January 2026 is earlier and is therefore the time of supply.

Explanation. Legal services supplied by an individual advocate to a business entity located in the taxable territory are generally subject to reverse charge. The exemption for qualifying small business entities does not apply here because Vistara's preceding-year aggregate turnover is ₹80 lakh. For services under reverse charge, the relevant time-of-supply rule compares the payment date with the date immediately following 60 days from the invoice date. The latter occurs first in this case. Option d incorrectly selects the payment date without applying the 60-day provision.

Where it goes wrong. Using the invoice date or payment date directly without calculating the date immediately following 60 days from the invoice under reverse charge.

Authority. Section 9(3) of the CGST Act; Notification No. 13/2017 CT(R) dated 28.06.2017; check

Question 15 · 2 marks · Registration (Chapter 9) · easy

Scenario. Neel Traders applies for registration under rule 8 in Madhya Pradesh. Its monthly output tax liability on supplies to registered persons, including CGST, SGST/UTGST, IGST and compensation cess, is ₹2,50,000. Aadhaar authentication has been completed, and it seeks one registration under the same PAN in the State.

Which statement correctly describes Neel Traders' eligibility and the registration procedure under Rule 14A of the CGST Rules?

  1. It is ineligible because Rule 14A requires monthly output tax liability to exceed ₹2.50 lakh.
  2. It is ineligible because the monthly output tax liability must be strictly below ₹2.50 lakh.
  3. It is eligible and may obtain multiple registrations in the same State under this option against the same PAN.
  4. It is eligible because its monthly liability does not exceed ₹2.50 lakh; following successful Aadhaar authentication, registration is granted electronically within 3 working days from submission. (correct answer)

Answer: D — It is eligible because its monthly liability does not exceed ₹2.50 lakh; following successful Aadhaar authentication, registration is granted electronically within 3 working days from submission.

Explanation. Rule 14A permits an applicant who has applied under rule 8 to use the electronic registration option when its total output tax liability on supplies to registered persons does not exceed ₹2.5 lakh per month and the required Aadhaar authentication is completed. Equality is included within the prescribed ceiling. The common portal grants registration electronically within 3 working days from submission after successful authentication. Option c overlooks the restriction of one registration per State or Union territory under this option against the same PAN.

Where it goes wrong. Reading the monthly liability ceiling as strictly below ₹2.50 lakh and overlooking the single-registration restriction.

Authority. Rule 14A of the CGST Rules; Rule 11 of the CGST Rules; September 2026 Statutory Update, Chapter 9

Question 16 · 1 marks · Exemptions from GST (Chapter 5) · easy

Scenario. On 1 October 2025, Surya General Insurance Ltd. provides a health insurance contract to Meera, an individual. The policy covers Meera, her spouse and child, each expressly included as family under the contract. The contract does not insure an employer group or any other group of persons.

What is the GST treatment of the health insurance service supplied under the contract, considering the exemption effective from 22 September 2025?

  1. Exempt, because the insured is an individual and the contract also covers that individual's family. (correct answer)
  2. Exempt only when the insured person is a registered business entity.
  3. Taxable, unless every insured family member holds a separate individual contract.
  4. Taxable, because the inclusion of family members automatically makes the policy a group insurance contract.

Answer: A — Exempt, because the insured is an individual and the contract also covers that individual's family.

Explanation. The September 2026 statutory update introduces an exemption for health insurance business supplied by an insurer to an insured who is not a group, effective from 22 September 2025. It expressly covers contracts where the insured is an individual or an individual and family. Family includes all individuals insured as family under the contract. Meera's policy therefore qualifies. Option d wrongly treats family coverage as a group insurance arrangement.

Where it goes wrong. Confusing an individual health insurance policy covering family members with a group insurance policy.

Authority. Notification No. 16/2025 CT(R) dated 17.09.2025; Notification No. 16/2025 IT(R) dated 17.09.2025; Notifications No. 12/2017 CT(R) and No. 9/2017 IT(R), as amended, effective 22.09.2025; September 2026 Statutory Update, Chapter 5

Authorities cited in this paper

Income-tax Act, 1961, section 17(2)(iii) · Income-tax Rules, 1962, Rule 3C, inserted through Notification No. 133/2025 dated 18.08.2025 · ICAI January 2027 Statutory Update, Chapter 3, Unit 1: Salaries · Income-tax Rules, 1962, Rule 3(2) · ICAI Study Material, July 2025, Chapter 3, Unit 1: Salaries, motor-car perquisite valuation · ICAI Study Material, July 2025, Chapter 3, Unit 1, illustration concerning employer-owned motor cars · Income-tax Act, 1961, section 16(ia) · Income-tax Act, 1961, section 115BAC · ICAI Study Material, July 2025, Chapter 3, Unit 1: Salaries · Income-tax Act, 1961, section 6(1) · Income-tax Act, 1961, section 6(6) · ICAI Study Material, July 2025, Chapter 2: Residence and Scope of Total Income, residential status of individuals · Income-tax Act, 1961, section 5(1) · ICAI Study Material, July 2025, Chapter 2: Residence and Scope of Total Income, scope of total income of RNOR · Income-tax Act, 1961, section 24(a) · ICAI Study Material, July 2025, Chapter 2: Residence and Scope of Total Income, scope of total income and computation illustrations · Income-tax Act, 1961, section 80C · Income-tax Act, 1961, section 80CCE · ICAI Study Material, July 2025, Chapter 6: Deductions from Gross Total Income, deduction under section 80C · Finance Act, 2025, First Schedule, Part I, applicable tax rates and surcharge for AY 2026-27 · ICAI Study Material, July 2025, Chapter 1: Basic Concepts, surcharge and marginal relief under the default tax regime · Section 7(1)(c) of the CGST Act · Paragraph 2 of Schedule I to the CGST Act, including its proviso · Section 25(4) and Section 25(5) of the CGST Act · Paragraph 2 of Schedule I to the CGST Act · Section 2(30) of the CGST Act · Section 2(90) of the CGST Act · Section 8(a) of the CGST Act · Section 10(1)(b) of the IGST Act · Section 10(1)(d) of the IGST Act · Section 9(5) of the CGST Act · Notification No. 17/2017 CT(R) dated 28.06.2017, as amended by Notification No. 17/2025 CT(R) dated 17.09.2025 · September 2026 Statutory Update, Chapter 3, effective 22.09.2025 · Section 9(3) of the CGST Act · Notification No. 13/2017 CT(R) dated 28.06.2017 · check · Rule 14A of the CGST Rules · Rule 11 of the CGST Rules · September 2026 Statutory Update, Chapter 9 · Notification No. 16/2025 CT(R) dated 17.09.2025 · Notification No. 16/2025 IT(R) dated 17.09.2025 · Notifications No. 12/2017 CT(R) and No. 9/2017 IT(R), as amended, effective 22.09.2025 · September 2026 Statutory Update, Chapter 5

Questions people ask

What does this paper cover?

This one paper carries both the Income-tax Law questions and the GST questions. On the Income-tax side it asks you to value a perquisite and compute salary income, to fix residential status and the scope of total income, to apply the ceiling on deductions from gross total income, and to work out marginal relief. On the GST side it asks you to classify a supply, to fix the place and the time of supply, to place the tax liability under reverse charge, to read the registration conditions and to state an exemption.

How many questions are there and how long do I have?

There are 16 questions and the paper carries 30 marks. Fifteen questions are worth 2 marks each and the last one is worth 1 mark. The time limit is 60 minutes. In exam mode the paper is timed and marked once at the end, so you can move between questions and return to any of them before the time is up.

How are the questions arranged on the paper?

The 16 questions sit in 7 case scenarios. The Income-tax Law questions come first, followed by the GST questions, in the order the paper sets them. A scenario passage is shared by the questions that follow it, so the same facts often carry more than one question. Read each passage once and note the key figures and dates before you begin.

Which chapters does the paper cover?

The Income-tax chapters are Chapter 1: Basic Concepts, Chapter 2: Residence and Scope of Total Income, Chapter 3, Unit 1: Salaries and Chapter 6: Deductions from Gross Total Income. The GST chapters are Chapter 2 - Supply under GST, Chapter 3 - Charge of GST, Chapter 4 - Place of Supply, Chapter 6 - Time of Supply, Chapter 9 - Registration and Chapter 5 - Exemptions from GST. Note that the two sets of chapters are numbered separately.

Which law do the questions follow?

The paper follows two law bases. For Income-tax Law it is the Income-tax Act 1961 as amended by the Finance Act 2025, with notifications and circulars up to 30 June 2026, for assessment year 2026-27. For GST it is the CGST Act 2017, the IGST Act 2017 and the CGST Rules as amended by the Finance Act 2025, with notifications and circulars effective up to 28 February 2026. The content is stated as at 31 October 2026.

Which computations are in the paper?

Several questions ask you to work out figures. You compute the value of a perquisite and the salary income chargeable, the total income of a person who is resident but not ordinarily resident, the allowable deduction after the overall ceiling is applied, and the marginal relief on surcharge. On the GST side you fix a place of supply, a time of supply and the tax payable by an operator of an online platform.

Is there negative marking?

No. There is no negative marking, so a wrong answer costs nothing. Each question carries the marks set out above and the paper is marked on that basis. If you are unsure of an option, attempt it rather than leave it blank, because an attempt that turns out wrong does not reduce your score.

Can I take the paper without a timer?

Yes. In practice mode there is no timer, and you can read the explanation for every answer as you go, so you can pause and work through the questions at your own pace. In exam mode the paper is timed and marked once at the end, and you get a certificate carrying your name and score when the paper closes.

Do I need to sign up or pay anything?

No sign-up is needed and there is no payment. Nothing about a student is stored on a server. You can open the paper, attempt it and read the result without creating an account, and the same applies to the timed mode and the untimed mode alike.

Is this paper issued by ICAI?

No. This is a practice test by HeyArtha. It is not issued by or affiliated with ICAI, and it is written for students of CA Intermediate Group 1 preparing for the January 2027 attempt. Use it alongside your study material and the applicable statutory update, and check the position of each rule as at the date stated in the paper.

Related

Other answer keys in this paper

Practice test by HeyArtha. Not issued by or affiliated with ICAI.