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CA Inter Taxation - Income-tax Law MCQ Test 12: answer key

This practice test covers Income-tax Law for CA Intermediate Group 1, written for the January 2027 attempt. It carries 15 marks in 30 minutes, with no negative marking, and sets 8 questions across case scenarios examining Capital Gains, Income from Other Sources, Income from Other Sources and Clubbing.

8 questions across 5 chapters, 15 marks and 30 minutes in the timed paper. Every answer below is shown with the working behind it and the authority it rests on.

Law and standards used: Income-tax Act 1961 as amended by Finance Act 2025, notifications and circulars up to 30 June 2026, AY 2026-27.

Questions
8
Marks
15
Time limit
30 minutes
Attempt
January 2027
Group
Group 1
Law basis
Income-tax Act 1961 as amended by Finance Act 2025, notifications and circulars up to 30 June 2026, AY 2026-27
Content as of
2026-11-01

Chapters covered

Questions, answers and explanations

Question 1 · 2 marks · Capital Gains · medium

Scenario. Mr. Raghav Mehta, a resident individual aged 48, opts out of the default tax regime under section 115BAC. During the previous year 2025-26 he transferred the following capital assets. On 12.05.2025 he sold 30,000 listed equity shares of Zenova Ltd. for Rs. 18,00,000. These shares were acquired on 20.06.2019 for Rs. 6,00,000. STT was paid on both acquisition and sale. Brokerage at 0.5% of sale consideration was paid. On 10.09.2025 he sold a plot of land at Pune for Rs. 95,00,000. It was acquired on 15.03.2018 for Rs. 40,00,000. The stamp duty value on the date of agreement, 08.08.2025, was Rs. 1,02,00,000; on the date of registration it was Rs. 1,08,00,000. Mr. Mehta received Rs. 5,00,000 by account payee cheque on 08.08.2025 from the buyer. No other amount was received before registration. On 20.01.2026 he sold 5,000 shares allotted under an ESOP by his employer, Zenova Ltd., for Rs. 7,50,000. He had paid Rs. 1,50,000 on exercise on 01.07.2023. The fair market value on the date of exercise, taken for perquisite valuation under section 17(2)(vi), was Rs. 4,00,000. These shares were listed; STT was paid on sale but not on allotment. He also sold rural agricultural land in Rajasthan for Rs. 12,00,000 on 22.02.2026; it was acquired in 2012 for Rs. 3,00,000. The land is outside any municipality or cantonment board and is not within the specified aerial distance limits. He has no other capital gains. CII: 2018-19 = 280; 2025-26 = 376.

Assuming Mr. Mehta's basic exemption limit is fully exhausted against other income, what is the tax on the listed equity shares under section 112A, including health and education cess at 4%?

  1. Rs. 1,33,250, since the threshold exemption of Rs. 1,25,000 is applied and cess is ignored on special-rate gains.
  2. Rs. 1,38,580, since LTCG of Rs. 11,91,000 is reduced by Rs. 1,25,000 and the balance is taxed at 12.5% plus cess. (correct answer)
  3. Rs. 1,48,875, since the entire LTCG of Rs. 11,91,000 is taxed at 12.5% without the Rs. 1,25,000 threshold.
  4. Rs. 1,25,000, since section 112A exempts the first Rs. 1,25,000 and the remaining gain is taxed only at 10% plus cess.

Answer: B — Rs. 1,38,580, since LTCG of Rs. 11,91,000 is reduced by Rs. 1,25,000 and the balance is taxed at 12.5% plus cess.

Working. Sale 18,00,000 - brokerage 9,000 = 17,91,000. LTCG = 17,91,000 - 6,00,000 = 11,91,000. Taxable = 11,91,000 - 1,25,000 = 10,66,000. Tax = 10,66,000 x 12.5% = 1,33,250. Cess = 5,330. Total = 1,38,580.

Explanation. Section 112A taxes LTCG on listed equity shares with STT paid on acquisition and transfer at 12.5% only on the amount exceeding Rs. 1,25,000. The net sale consideration is Rs. 17,91,000 after brokerage of Rs. 9,000, so LTCG is Rs. 11,91,000. Tax is 12.5% of Rs. 10,66,000, plus 4% cess. The tempting option a applies the threshold but ignores cess.

Where it goes wrong. Ignoring cess or taxing the whole gain without the section 112A threshold.

Authority. Section 112A; Section 48; Chapter 3 Unit 4

Question 2 · 2 marks · Capital Gains · hard

What is the full value of consideration for the Pune land under section 50C and the long-term capital gain to be included in gross total income before any exemption?

  1. Rs. 1,02,00,000 and Rs. 62,00,000, because the stamp duty value on the agreement date is adopted whenever it exceeds the actual consideration.
  2. Rs. 1,08,00,000 and Rs. 68,00,000, because the stamp duty value on registration is always adopted if it is higher than the agreement value.
  3. Rs. 95,00,000 and Rs. 55,00,000, because the agreement-date stamp duty value does not exceed 110% of actual consideration and payment was made by account payee cheque. (correct answer)
  4. Rs. 95,00,000 and Rs. 41,28,571, because indexed cost of acquisition is deducted while computing income under the head Capital Gains.

Answer: C — Rs. 95,00,000 and Rs. 55,00,000, because the agreement-date stamp duty value does not exceed 110% of actual consideration and payment was made by account payee cheque.

Working. Actual consideration = 95,00,000. 110% = 1,04,50,000. Agreement SDV = 1,02,00,000, which is not above 1,04,50,000. FVC = 95,00,000. LTCG = 95,00,000 - 40,00,000 = 55,00,000.

Explanation. Under section 50C, the agreement-date stamp duty value can be used when part consideration is paid by account payee cheque before the agreement. Here Rs. 1,02,00,000 does not exceed 110% of Rs. 95,00,000, so actual consideration is the full value. Indexation is not allowed while computing income under the head Capital Gains; it is relevant only for tax under section 112.

Where it goes wrong. Using registration-date stamp duty value or deducting indexed cost in the head computation.

Authority. Section 50C; Section 48; Chapter 3 Unit 4

Question 3 · 2 marks · Capital Gains · hard

What is the total tax under section 112, including cess at 4%, on the Pune land and the ESOP shares, assuming no basic exemption adjustment and that Mr. Mehta claims the option most beneficial to him for the land?

  1. Rs. 7,60,500, computed at 12.5% on land gain without indexation and on ESOP gain, plus 4% cess. (correct answer)
  2. Rs. 9,04,243, computed at 20% with indexation on land gain and at 12.5% on ESOP gain, plus 4% cess.
  3. Rs. 7,31,250, computed at 12.5% on both gains, since health and education cess is not added to special-rate tax.
  4. Rs. 6,87,500, computed only on the land gain, since ESOP shares are always exempt under section 10(10D).

Answer: A — Rs. 7,60,500, computed at 12.5% on land gain without indexation and on ESOP gain, plus 4% cess.

Working. Land LTCG = 95,00,000 - 40,00,000 = 55,00,000. Tax at 12.5% = 6,87,500. Indexed cost = 40,00,000 x 376/280 = 53,71,429; indexed gain = 41,28,571; tax at 20% = 8,25,714; 12.5% option is lower. ESOP cost = 4,00,000; gain = 3,50,000; tax at 12.5% = 43,750. Total tax = 7,31,250; cess = 29,250; total = 7,60,500.

Explanation. For resident individuals, land or building acquired before 23.07.2024 can be taxed at 12.5% without indexation or 20% with indexation, whichever is beneficial. On the given figures, the 12.5% option is lower. ESOP shares do not qualify for section 112A because STT was not paid on acquisition; cost is the perquisite FMV under section 49(2AA). Tax is 12.5% plus cess.

Where it goes wrong. Using indexation for land or treating ESOP shares as section 112A shares.

Authority. Section 112; Section 49(2AA); Section 17(2)(vi); Section 48; Chapter 3 Unit 4

Question 4 · 2 marks · Income from Other Sources · medium

Scenario. Mr. Aditya Verma, a resident individual aged 44, exercises the option of shifting out of the default tax regime under section 115BAC. His wife, Mrs. Sneha Verma, is a homemaker and has no professional qualification. Their minor son Kabir, aged 10, and minor daughter Ira, aged 7, live with them. During the previous year 2025-26, Aditya received a cash gift of Rs. 80,000 from his friend on 12.06.2025. His mother gifted him a plot of land on 15.07.2025; its stamp duty value was Rs. 18,00,000. No consideration was paid. Sneha received remuneration of Rs. 1,20,000 from Riya Traders, a partnership firm in which Aditya has 30% profit share. The remuneration was not attributable to any technical or professional knowledge of Sneha. Aditya transferred Rs. 5,00,000 to Sneha on 01.04.2025 without consideration. She invested it in a bank fixed deposit at 9% p.a. and earned interest of Rs. 45,000 during the year. She reinvested that interest in another deposit and earned Rs. 4,000 on it. Kabir won Rs. 2,00,000 in a national painting competition. He deposited the prize in a bank fixed deposit and earned interest of Rs. 15,000. He also received a cash gift of Rs. 20,000 from a non-relative. Ira received a cash gift of Rs. 40,000 from a non-relative. Aditya's income before clubbing is Rs. 12,00,000; Sneha's income before clubbing, excluding the remuneration, is Rs. 6,00,000. No other income. Both Aditya and Sneha satisfy conditions for section 10(32) exemption.

What amount is chargeable as income from other sources in Mr. Aditya Verma's hands under section 56(2)(x) for the gifts received by him?

  1. Rs. 18,80,000, since both the cash gift from the friend and the plot from his mother are taxable at stamp duty value.
  2. Rs. 18,00,000, since the plot from his mother is taxable but the cash gift from a friend is below the basic exemption limit.
  3. Nil, since gifts from a friend and from a mother are both exempt from tax under section 56(2)(x) in all cases.
  4. Rs. 80,000, since the cash gift exceeds Rs. 50,000 while the plot from his mother is exempt as a gift from a relative. (correct answer)

Answer: D — Rs. 80,000, since the cash gift exceeds Rs. 50,000 while the plot from his mother is exempt as a gift from a relative.

Working. Cash from friend = 80,000, taxable because it exceeds 50,000. Plot from mother = exempt because mother is a relative. Taxable amount = 80,000.

Explanation. A cash gift from a non-relative is taxable under section 56(2)(x) if the aggregate exceeds Rs. 50,000. A plot received from a mother is exempt because a lineal ascendant is a relative. The stamp duty value of the plot is not taxed in Aditya's hands. The tempting option b wrongly treats the mother's gift as taxable.

Where it goes wrong. Taxing the plot received from a relative or ignoring the Rs. 50,000 threshold.

Authority. Section 56(2)(x); Chapter 3 Unit 5

Question 5 · 2 marks · Income from Other Sources and Clubbing · hard

How much of Mrs. Sneha Verma's remuneration from Riya Traders is includible in Mr. Aditya Verma's total income under section 64(1)(ii)?

  1. Nil, since remuneration for services actually rendered by the spouse is never clubbed with the individual's income.
  2. Rs. 1,20,000, since Aditya has substantial interest in the firm and Sneha has no technical or professional qualification for the remuneration. (correct answer)
  3. Rs. 36,000, being 30% of the remuneration, because Aditya's profit share in the firm is 30%.
  4. Rs. 1,20,000, since remuneration from a firm is always clubbed with the income of the higher-earning spouse irrespective of the firm's profit share or qualification.

Answer: B — Rs. 1,20,000, since Aditya has substantial interest in the firm and Sneha has no technical or professional qualification for the remuneration.

Working. Aditya's profit share = 30%, which is at least 20%, so substantial interest exists. Sneha has no technical or professional qualification. Remuneration of 1,20,000 is fully clubbed under section 64(1)(ii).

Explanation. Section 64(1)(ii) clubs remuneration received by a spouse from a concern in which the individual has substantial interest. Aditya has a 30% profit share, which is substantial interest. Sneha has no technical or professional qualification, so the exception does not apply. The full Rs. 1,20,000 is clubbed, not only 30% of it.

Where it goes wrong. Clubbing only the 30% profit share or ignoring the qualification exception.

Authority. Section 64(1)(ii); Chapter 4

Question 6 · 2 marks · Income from Other Sources and Clubbing · hard

What amount of the minor children's income is to be clubbed in Mr. Aditya Verma's total income after allowing exemption under section 10(32)?

  1. Rs. 13,500, being Kabir's fixed deposit interest of Rs. 15,000 less Rs. 1,500, while his prize and small gifts are not clubbed. (correct answer)
  2. Rs. 2,33,500, being Kabir's prize, interest and gifts plus Ira's gift, less Rs. 1,500 for each child.
  3. Rs. 15,000, being the whole interest earned by Kabir, since section 10(32) is not available to a parent who opts out.
  4. Nil, since all income of a minor child is exempt under section 10(32) up to Rs. 1,500 per child and the rest is taxed in the child's hands.

Answer: A — Rs. 13,500, being Kabir's fixed deposit interest of Rs. 15,000 less Rs. 1,500, while his prize and small gifts are not clubbed.

Working. Kabir prize = 2,00,000, not clubbed. Kabir interest = 15,000, clubbed. Gifts 20,000 and 40,000 are below 50,000 each, so not taxable. Exemption = 1,500. Clubbed amount = 15,000 - 1,500 = 13,500.

Explanation. Income from a minor's skill or talent is not clubbed, so Kabir's Rs. 2,00,000 prize is excluded. Interest earned on a deposit made out of that prize is clubbed. Cash gifts of Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 40,000 are each below the Rs. 50,000 threshold and are not taxable. Section 10(32) gives Rs. 1,500 exemption.

Where it goes wrong. Clubbing the talent prize or ignoring the interest on the deposit made from it.

Authority. Section 64(1A); Section 10(32); Chapter 4; Chapter 3 Unit 5

Question 7 · 2 marks · TDS and TCS · hard

Scenario. Vardhman Retail Ltd. had turnover of Rs. 11.50 crore in F.Y. 2024-25. During F.Y. 2025-26 it purchased goods from Mr. Suresh, a resident wholesaler, for Rs. 62,00,000. Payments were Rs. 20,00,000 on 10.06.2025, Rs. 25,00,000 on 05.09.2025 and Rs. 17,00,000 on 20.12.2025. Mr. Suresh did not furnish his PAN. No other purchase was made from him, and Vardhman Retail Ltd. is not required to deduct tax under any other provision on these purchases.

What is the correct amount of tax deductible at source under section 194Q on the payment of Rs. 17,00,000 made on 20.12.2025, if Mr. Suresh has not furnished his PAN?

  1. Rs. 1,200, since section 194Q requires deduction at 0.1% of the amount exceeding Rs. 50,00,000 even when PAN is absent.
  2. Rs. 1,700, since 0.1% is applied to the whole payment of Rs. 17,00,000 that crosses the threshold.
  3. Nil, since purchases from a resident wholesaler are outside section 194Q when the buyer is a company.
  4. Rs. 60,000, since section 206AA requires deduction at 5% of the amount exceeding Rs. 50,00,000 when PAN is not furnished. (correct answer)

Answer: D — Rs. 60,000, since section 206AA requires deduction at 5% of the amount exceeding Rs. 50,00,000 when PAN is not furnished.

Working. Purchases = 62,00,000. Excess over 50,00,000 = 12,00,000. No PAN, so section 206AA rate for 194Q = 5%. TDS = 5% x 12,00,000 = 60,000.

Explanation. Section 194Q applies because Vardhman's turnover exceeded Rs. 10 crore and purchases from Mr. Suresh exceeded Rs. 50 lakh. The excess is Rs. 12,00,000. Since PAN is not furnished, section 206AA raises the rate for section 194Q to 5%, giving Rs. 60,000. Option a uses the normal 0.1% rate despite the missing PAN.

Where it goes wrong. Using the normal 0.1% rate when PAN is absent or taxing the entire payment.

Authority. Section 194Q; Section 206AA; Chapter 7

Question 8 · 1 marks · Advance Tax · medium

Scenario. Mr. Omkar, a resident individual aged 52, carries on a retail business and opts for presumptive taxation under section 44AD(1). For F.Y. 2025-26, his estimated tax liability is Rs. 1,40,000 and tax deducted at source is Rs. 20,000. He has no other income and no tax credit or relief.

What is the amount and due date of the advance tax instalment payable by Mr. Omkar for F.Y. 2025-26?

  1. Rs. 54,000 by 15.09.2025, since 45% of the net liability is payable by that date for all assessees.
  2. Rs. 18,000 by 15.06.2025, since 15% of the net liability is payable in the first instalment under section 211.
  3. Rs. 1,20,000 by 15.03.2026, since a section 44AD assessee pays the whole advance tax in one instalment by that date. (correct answer)
  4. Nil, since tax deducted at source of Rs. 20,000 exceeds the threshold of Rs. 10,000 for advance tax.

Answer: C — Rs. 1,20,000 by 15.03.2026, since a section 44AD assessee pays the whole advance tax in one instalment by that date.

Working. Tax liability = 1,40,000. Less TDS = 20,000. Net advance tax = 1,20,000. Due date for section 44AD(1) assessee = 15.03.2026.

Explanation. An eligible assessee opting for section 44AD(1) pays the whole advance tax in one instalment on or before 15 March of the financial year. The net liability is Rs. 1,40,000 less TDS of Rs. 20,000, i.e. Rs. 1,20,000. The four-instalment schedule does not apply to such an assessee.

Where it goes wrong. Applying the four-instalment schedule to a section 44AD assessee.

Authority. Section 44AD(1); Section 211; Chapter 7

Authorities cited in this paper

Section 112A · Section 48 · Chapter 3 Unit 4 · Section 50C · Section 112 · Section 49(2AA) · Section 17(2)(vi) · Section 56(2)(x) · Chapter 3 Unit 5 · Section 64(1)(ii) · Chapter 4 · Section 64(1A) · Section 10(32) · Section 194Q · Section 206AA · Chapter 7 · Section 44AD(1) · Section 211

Questions people ask

How many questions are in the paper and how are they set out?

There are 8 questions worth 15 marks in total, arranged across 4 case scenarios. Seven questions carry 2 marks each and one question carries 1 mark. Each scenario presents realistic factual situations, and the questions ask you to apply statutory provisions and compute figures.

What is the time limit, and is there negative marking?

The time limit is 30 minutes and the paper carries 15 marks. There is no negative marking, so an incorrect answer costs nothing. Grading and results are provided at the end of the attempt.

Which chapters do the questions come from?

This test covers Capital Gains, Income from Other Sources, Income from Other Sources and Clubbing, TDS and TCS, Advance Tax. Every scenario is drawn from these chapters, testing statutory conditions, deduction limits, computation thresholds, and applicable tax rates.

Which law and which assessment year do the questions use?

The questions apply the Income-tax Act, 1961 as amended by Finance Act 2025, notifications and circulars up to 30 June 2026, for assessment year 2026-27 (previous year 2025-26). It is written for CA Intermediate Group 1 students preparing for the January 2027 examination.

Who prepared this practice test?

This is a practice test by HeyArtha, prepared for CA Intermediate students. It is not issued by or affiliated with ICAI. Questions are prepared with AI tools and cross-checked by independent solvers; they are not reviewed by a Chartered Accountant.

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In exam mode the test is timed and graded upon submission. You receive your score, chapter-wise breakdown, full explanations, and a certificate carrying your name and score. No account creation or sign-up is required, and no student data is stored on a server.

Are the questions theoretical or practical computations?

They are practical, case-based applied problems. Each question provides specific numbers, dates, and transactions, requiring accurate computation and application of statutory rules before selecting an answer.

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Practice test by HeyArtha. Not issued by or affiliated with ICAI.