Practice test 2 for Financial Management and Strategic Management covering Investment Decisions - Capital Budgeting Techniques, Financing Decisions - Leverages, Management of Working Capital - Operating Cycle, Strategic Analysis: Internal Environment - Resources and Core Competencies, Strategic Choices - Portfolio Analysis, Strategic Choices - Intensification Strategies.
16 questions across 6 chapters, 30 marks and 60 minutes in the timed paper. Every answer below is shown with the working behind it and the authority it rests on.
Law and standards used: ICAI Study Material for CA Intermediate Paper 6: Financial Management and Strategic Management (relevant for January 2027 attempt).
Questions
16
Marks
30
Time limit
60 minutes
Attempt
January 2027
Group
Group 2
Law basis
ICAI Study Material for CA Intermediate Paper 6: Financial Management and Strategic Management (relevant for January 2027 attempt)
Content as of
2026-11-04
Chapters covered
Investment Decisions - Capital Budgeting Techniques (3 Q)
Financing Decisions - Leverages (3 Q)
Management of Working Capital - Operating Cycle (2 Q)
Question 1 · 2 marks · Investment Decisions - Capital Budgeting Techniques · hard
Scenario. Pragati Infra Ltd. is appraising two projects with unequal useful lives. Project Alpha requires an initial cash outlay of ₹3,00,000 and generates a single year-end cash inflow of ₹4,50,000 at the end of Year 1; its life is one year. Project Beta requires an initial cash outlay of ₹6,00,000 and generates year-end cash inflows of ₹3,00,000 in each of Years 1, 2 and 3; its life is three years. For the appraisal, equity represents 60 percent and debt 40 percent of total capital on market-value weights. The cost of equity is 12 percent, the pre-tax cost of debt is 10 percent and the corporate tax rate is 30 percent. Interest is tax-deductible. Use PVIFs at 10 percent of 0.909, 0.826 and 0.751 for Years 1, 2 and 3 respectively. For Beta's IRR interpolation, use three-year PVAFs of 2.106 at 20 percent and 1.952 at 25 percent. Management requires the NPV, IRR and PI of each proposal separately; no identical replacement-cycle assumption or final mutually exclusive selection is supplied.
Using market-value weights, the tax-adjusted cost of debt and the supplied discount factors, which pair of NPVs is correctly calculated for Alpha and Beta?
Explanation. Option a is correct. The after-tax cost of debt is 10 percent × (1 - 0.30) = 7 percent. WACC is (60 percent × 12 percent) + (40 percent × 7 percent) = 10 percent. At this rate, Alpha's present value of inflows is ₹4,50,000 × 0.909 = ₹4,09,050, giving NPV of ₹1,09,050. Beta's present value of inflows is ₹3,00,000 × (0.909 + 0.826 + 0.751) = ₹7,45,800, giving NPV of ₹1,45,800. Option b omits Beta's Year 3 inflow, leaving only the first two discounted inflows and a negative NPV. Option c fails to discount Alpha's Year 1 inflow and therefore reports the undiscounted surplus of ₹1,50,000. Option d reports Beta's present value of inflows without deducting its ₹6,00,000 initial outlay, so it is not NPV.
Where it goes wrong. Do not use the pre-tax debt cost in WACC, and do not report the present value of inflows as NPV without deducting the initial cash outlay. Unequal project lives also require care before making a final mutually exclusive choice; this question asks for each project's separate appraisal measure only.
Authority. Chapter 4: Cost of Capital; Section 9: Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC); Chapter 7: Investment Decisions; Section 9.1: Net Present Value Method (NPV); Section 9: Discounting Techniques - Scenario 3: Disparity in Life of Proposals (Unequal Lives)
Question 2 · 2 marks · Investment Decisions - Capital Budgeting Techniques · hard
Using the supplied three-year PVAFs and linear interpolation between 20 percent and 25 percent for Beta, which IRR comparison is correct?
Explanation. Option b is correct. Alpha has one cash inflow, so its IRR is the rate that makes ₹4,50,000 / (1 + r) equal to ₹3,00,000, which is 50 percent. For Beta, the 20 percent PVAF gives a positive NPV and the 25 percent PVAF gives a negative NPV. Interpolation gives approximately 23.44 percent. Option a reverses the project results. Option c mistakes the hurdle rate and one trial rate for the projects' internal rates; IRR is the rate that makes NPV zero. Option d takes the upper trial rate as Beta's IRR without interpolation, although Beta's NPV is already negative at 25 percent and positive at 20 percent.
Where it goes wrong. IRR is not the WACC or the trial discount rate. For Beta, retain the positive NPV at the lower rate and the negative NPV at the higher rate in the interpolation fraction; reversing these signs distorts the result.
Authority. Chapter 7: Investment Decisions; Section 9.3: Internal Rate of Return Method (IRR); Section 9: Discounting Techniques - Scenario 3: Disparity in Life of Proposals (Unequal Lives)
Question 3 · 2 marks · Investment Decisions - Capital Budgeting Techniques · medium
Which profitability index comparison is correctly calculated from the present value of cash inflows and the initial cash outlay?
Alpha 1.243; Beta 1.364
Alpha 1.500; Beta 1.243
Alpha 1.364; Beta 1.243 (correct answer)
Alpha 0.364; Beta 0.243
Answer: C — Alpha 1.364; Beta 1.243
Working. Alpha PI = ₹4,09,050 / ₹3,00,000 = 1.3635 ≈ 1.364. Beta PI = ₹7,45,800 / ₹6,00,000 = 1.243. Both indices exceed 1, so both proposals have positive NPVs at the stated discount rate. Alpha has the higher relative profitability index, while Beta has the higher absolute NPV.
Explanation. Option c is correct. PI is the present value of cash inflows divided by the initial cash outlay. Alpha's PI is ₹4,09,050 / ₹3,00,000 = 1.3635, approximately 1.364. Beta's PI is ₹7,45,800 / ₹6,00,000 = 1.243. Option a reverses the two project indices. Option b uses Alpha's undiscounted inflow of ₹4,50,000 rather than its discounted value. Option d divides NPV by initial outlay; that produces the net surplus ratio, not PI, which includes recovery of the initial outlay in its numerator relationship.
Where it goes wrong. Do not divide NPV by initial outlay and call the result PI. The numerator is the present value of all future cash inflows, not the net present value.
Authority. Chapter 7: Investment Decisions; Section 9.2: Profitability Index / Desirability Factor / Present Value Index Method
Question 4 · 2 marks · Financing Decisions - Leverages · medium
Scenario. Vardhman Textiles reports current annual sales of ₹120 lakh. Variable operating costs are 60 percent of sales and annual fixed operating costs are ₹28 lakh. The company has annual interest expense of ₹4 lakh, no preference share capital and an unchanged number of equity shares. Selling price and variable cost per unit, fixed operating costs and interest are expected to remain constant for the proposed change in sales volume. The company is considering a 15 percent increase in sales volume.
What is Vardhman Textiles' degree of operating leverage at the current level of sales?
Explanation. Option d is correct. DOL is contribution divided by EBIT. Contribution is ₹120 lakh less variable costs of ₹72 lakh, or ₹48 lakh. EBIT is ₹48 lakh less fixed operating costs of ₹28 lakh, or ₹20 lakh. DOL is therefore 2.40. Option a uses the inverse relationship, EBIT divided by contribution. Option b uses contribution divided by contribution after incorrectly adding fixed cost back to EBIT. Option c divides sales by EBIT, using revenue instead of contribution as the numerator.
Where it goes wrong. The numerator is contribution, not sales revenue. First deduct variable costs from sales, then deduct fixed operating costs to derive EBIT.
Question 5 · 2 marks · Financing Decisions - Leverages · medium
What is the degree of financial leverage at Vardhman Textiles' existing interest burden?
1.25 (correct answer)
0.80
1.50
5.00
Answer: A — 1.25
Working. EBIT = ₹20 lakh. Interest = ₹4 lakh. EBT = ₹20 lakh - ₹4 lakh = ₹16 lakh. Since there are no preference shares, DFL = EBIT / EBT = ₹20 lakh / ₹16 lakh = 1.25.
Explanation. Option a is correct. With no preference share capital, DFL is EBIT divided by earnings before tax, which is EBIT less interest. EBIT is ₹20 lakh and interest is ₹4 lakh, so DFL is ₹20 lakh / ₹16 lakh = 1.25. Option b reverses the ratio by dividing EBT by EBIT. Option c incorrectly uses contribution divided by EBT, mixing the operating and financial leverage bases. Option d divides EBIT by interest alone rather than by earnings after interest.
Where it goes wrong. Interest is deducted from EBIT before calculating the financial leverage denominator. Do not use contribution or interest alone as the denominator.
Explanation. Option b is correct. DCL is the product of DOL and DFL, so it is 2.40 × 1.25 = 3.00. DCL measures the percentage change in EPS for a percentage change in sales. A 15 percent increase in sales therefore produces a 45 percent increase in EPS, assuming the stated fixed costs and interest remain unchanged. Option a applies DOL alone and calculates the change in EBIT, not EPS. Option c applies DFL alone and ignores the operating leverage effect. Option d adds DOL and DFL rather than multiplying them.
Where it goes wrong. Combined leverage is DOL multiplied by DFL, not their sum. DOL converts sales movement into EBIT movement; DFL then converts EBIT movement into EPS movement.
Question 7 · 2 marks · Management of Working Capital - Operating Cycle · hard
Scenario. Aryan Auto Components provides the following annual data: raw material consumed ₹36,00,000; average raw material stock ₹6,00,000; cost of production ₹72,00,000; average work-in-progress ₹4,00,000; cost of goods sold ₹90,00,000; average finished goods stock ₹7,50,000; annual credit sales ₹1,20,00,000; average receivables ₹12,00,000; annual credit purchases ₹72,00,000; and average trade payables ₹6,00,000. Assume a 360-day year and that the stated sales and purchases are on credit.
Which set of component periods and net operating cycle is correctly calculated for Aryan Auto Components?
Raw material 60 days; WIP 20 days; finished goods 30 days; debtors 36 days; creditors 30 days; net cycle 176 days
Raw material 60 days; WIP 20 days; finished goods 30 days; debtors 36 days; creditors 30 days; net cycle 86 days
Raw material 60 days; WIP 20 days; finished goods 30 days; debtors 36 days; creditors 30 days; net cycle 116 days (correct answer)
Raw material 60 days; WIP 20 days; finished goods 30 days; debtors 36 days; creditors 30 days; net cycle 96 days
Answer: C — Raw material 60 days; WIP 20 days; finished goods 30 days; debtors 36 days; creditors 30 days; net cycle 116 days
Explanation. Option c is correct. The component periods are 60 days for raw materials, 20 days for WIP, 30 days for finished goods, 36 days for debtors and 30 days of supplier credit. The net operating cycle is the sum of the inventory and receivables periods less the credit period enjoyed from suppliers: 60 + 20 + 30 + 36 - 30 = 116 days. Option a adds supplier credit instead of deducting it. Option b omits the finished goods holding period. Option d omits the WIP period.
Where it goes wrong. Supplier credit reduces the period for which the business must finance its operating cycle. Do not add the creditors period, and do not omit any inventory stage.
Authority. Chapter 9: Management of Working Capital; Unit I: Introduction to Working Capital Management; Section 6: Operating or Working Capital Cycle; Section 6.1: Working Capital Based on Operating Cycle
Question 8 · 1 marks · Management of Working Capital - Operating Cycle · medium
Approximately how many operating cycles does Aryan Auto Components complete in a 360-day year?
2.05 cycles
4.19 cycles
3.75 cycles
3.10 cycles (correct answer)
Answer: D — 3.10 cycles
Working. Number of operating cycles = 360 / 116 = 3.1034, approximately 3.10 cycles per year.
Explanation. Option d is correct. The number of operating cycles in a year is the number of days in the year divided by the net operating cycle. Using 360 days and 116 days gives approximately 3.10 cycles. Option a uses 176 days, which results from adding supplier credit. Option b uses 86 days, which results from omitting finished goods holding time. Option c uses 96 days, which results from omitting the WIP period.
Where it goes wrong. Do not divide the operating cycle by the days in the year. The required ratio is annual days divided by net operating-cycle days.
Authority. Chapter 9: Management of Working Capital; Unit I: Introduction to Working Capital Management; Section 6: Operating or Working Capital Cycle
Question 9 · 2 marks · Strategic Analysis: Internal Environment - Resources and Core Competencies · medium
Scenario. CloudCraft Technologies assesses its resources using a four-question VRIO scorecard: Value, Rarity, Inimitability and Organization. The proprietary algorithm reduces customer processing errors, is held by CloudCraft alone, depends on a protected dataset and accumulated tacit routines that rivals cannot readily reproduce, has no strategically equivalent substitute, and is supported by cross-functional teams, decision rights and incentives. The brand has strong customer recognition and supports premium pricing, but several close rivals possess comparable brand equity and can reproduce CloudCraft's promotional campaigns; the company has organised marketing systems to exploit its brand. The specialist engineering team has valuable customer-workflow knowledge, is rare in the industry and relies on tacit collaborative routines that are difficult to imitate; no strategically equivalent substitute has been identified. However, siloed reporting, unclear accountability and weak retention systems prevent management from deploying that team consistently. Terminology note: ICAI Study Material Chapter 3 formally states the core-competence criteria as valuable, rare, costly to imitate and non-substitutable. The Organization check is an additional VRIO screen expressly supplied for this case and is not presented as the chapter's named fourth criterion.
Which conclusion most appropriately follows for CloudCraft's proprietary algorithm under the case's VRIO screen and the ICAI core-competence criteria?
It can support sustained competitive advantage because it is valuable, rare, costly to imitate, non-substitutable and supported by organisational systems (correct answer)
It provides only temporary advantage because the algorithm is readily available to competitors
It creates competitive parity because its capability is not valuable to customers
It is an unused resource because CloudCraft lacks systems to exploit it
Answer: A — It can support sustained competitive advantage because it is valuable, rare, costly to imitate, non-substitutable and supported by organisational systems
Working. VRIO screen: Value = Yes; Rarity = Yes; Inimitability = Yes; Organization = Yes. ICAI core-competence screen: Valuable = Yes; Rare = Yes; Costly to imitate = Yes; Non-substitutable = Yes. The algorithm meets all stated conditions and is supported by organisational systems, so it can support sustained competitive advantage.
Explanation. Option a is correct. The algorithm creates customer value, is rare, is difficult for rivals to reproduce, has no strategically equivalent substitute and is supported by teams, decision rights and incentives. These facts satisfy the ICAI core-competence screen and the case's supplementary Organization check. Option b contradicts the facts that competitors do not hold the algorithm and cannot readily reproduce its underlying dataset and routines. Option c contradicts the stated reduction in customer processing errors. Option d is incorrect because cross-functional teams, decision rights and incentives are expressly in place.
Where it goes wrong. A valuable technology alone does not establish sustainable advantage. Assess rarity, imitation barriers and substitutes; under the case's VRIO overlay, also test whether the organisation can deploy the resource.
Authority. Chapter 3: Strategic Analysis: Internal Environment; Section 3.4.1: Criteria for Building Core Competencies
Question 10 · 2 marks · Strategic Analysis: Internal Environment - Resources and Core Competencies · medium
How should CloudCraft's brand equity be classified under the case's VRIO screen?
Sustained competitive advantage because brand reputation is valuable even when competitors possess comparable brands
Competitive parity because the brand is valuable but not rare among close competitors (correct answer)
Temporary competitive advantage because every valuable brand is automatically rare
Unused competitive advantage because the company has no marketing systems to exploit the brand
Answer: B — Competitive parity because the brand is valuable but not rare among close competitors
Working. VRIO screen for brand equity: Value = Yes; Rarity = No; Inimitability = No on the stated facts; Organization = Yes. Since the rarity test fails, the brand supports competitive parity rather than temporary or sustained competitive advantage.
Explanation. Option b is correct. The brand creates value and CloudCraft is organised to use it, but comparable brand equity exists among several close rivals. Because rarity is absent, the resource does not provide a competitive advantage under the VRIO screen and is consistent with competitive parity. Option a incorrectly treats value as sufficient for sustained advantage. Option c incorrectly assumes that value itself proves rarity. Option d contradicts the stated existence of organised marketing systems.
Where it goes wrong. Strong brand recognition and customer value do not by themselves establish rarity. A resource shared by several close competitors may be valuable without differentiating the firm strategically.
Authority. Chapter 3: Strategic Analysis: Internal Environment; Section 3.4.1: Criteria for Building Core Competencies
Question 11 · 2 marks · Strategic Analysis: Internal Environment - Resources and Core Competencies · hard
The engineering team is valuable, rare and difficult to imitate, with no strategic substitute identified. However, CloudCraft lacks the systems needed to deploy it consistently. What is the most appropriate VRIO diagnosis?
Sustained competitive advantage, because organisational systems are irrelevant once a resource is rare
Temporary competitive advantage, because the team is stated to be difficult to imitate
Unused competitive advantage, because the resource has strategic potential but the organisation is not structured to exploit it (correct answer)
Competitive parity, because the case states that the engineering knowledge is rare
Answer: C — Unused competitive advantage, because the resource has strategic potential but the organisation is not structured to exploit it
Working. VRIO screen: Value = Yes; Rarity = Yes; Inimitability = Yes; Organization = No. The resource therefore has potential competitive advantage, but that advantage is not being fully exploited because the organisation is not appropriately aligned. The ICAI material separately requires non-substitutability for a capability to qualify as a core competence; the scenario states that no strategic substitute has been identified.
Explanation. Option c is correct under the case's supplementary VRIO screen. The engineering capability has value, rarity and imitation barriers, and no strategic substitute is identified; however, siloed reporting, unclear accountability and weak retention systems mean the organisation cannot exploit it consistently. Option a ignores the Organization condition expressly included in the case. Option b does not fit because the facts say the routines are difficult to imitate, and the stated deficiency is organisational deployment. Option d is wrong because rarity is expressly present, so competitive parity is not the appropriate diagnosis.
Where it goes wrong. Do not stop after identifying valuable, rare and hard-to-imitate resources. A firm may possess strategic potential but fail to realise it when structure, processes, accountability or incentives are inadequate.
Authority. Chapter 3: Strategic Analysis: Internal Environment; Section 3.4.1: Criteria for Building Core Competencies
Question 12 · 2 marks · Strategic Choices - Portfolio Analysis · medium
Scenario. Mahaveer Conglomerate reviews four strategic business units using market growth rate and relative market share. Cloud Analytics operates in a market growing at 19 percent and has relative market share of 1.7. Cement operates in a market growing at 4 percent and has relative market share of 2.3. Drone Delivery operates in a market growing at 22 percent and has relative market share of 0.55. Legacy Photo Kiosks operates in a market growing at 3 percent and has relative market share of 0.40. Treat high growth and high relative market share as the upper quadrants, and low growth and low relative market share as the lower quadrants. The board must classify the units and allocate cash across the portfolio.
Which BCG Growth-Share Matrix category applies to Mahaveer's Drone Delivery unit?
Explanation. Option d is correct. Drone Delivery operates in a high-growth market of 22 percent but has low relative market share of 0.55. A low-share business in a high-growth market is a Question Mark. Option a would require high relative market share as well as high growth. Option b requires low market growth and high relative market share. Option c requires both low growth and low relative market share.
Where it goes wrong. Classify a unit on both axes. High market growth alone does not make a unit a Star; relative market share must also be high.
Authority. Chapter 4: Strategic Choices; Section 4.4.3: Boston Consulting Group (BCG) Growth-Share Matrix
Question 13 · 2 marks · Strategic Choices - Portfolio Analysis · medium
Which Mahaveer unit falls in the Dog quadrant of the BCG matrix?
Explanation. Option a is correct. Legacy Photo Kiosks has low market growth of 3 percent and low relative market share of 0.40, which places it in the Dog quadrant. Cement has low growth but high share, making it a Cash Cow. Cloud Analytics has high growth and high share, making it a Star. Drone Delivery has high growth and low share, making it a Question Mark.
Where it goes wrong. A unit with low market growth is not automatically a Dog. Check relative market share as well; a low-growth unit with high share is a Cash Cow.
Authority. Chapter 4: Strategic Choices; Section 4.4.3: Boston Consulting Group (BCG) Growth-Share Matrix; Section 4.4.3.1: BCG Matrix - Post Identification Strategies
Question 14 · 2 marks · Strategic Choices - Portfolio Analysis · hard
Which resource-allocation plan most appropriately balances cash flows across Mahaveer's BCG portfolio?
Use cash from the Cash Cow to maintain every Dog and stop investment in all Stars
Use surplus cash from Cement, the Cash Cow, to maintain Cloud Analytics, the Star, and selectively build Drone Delivery, the Question Mark; review Legacy Photo Kiosks for harvest or divestment (correct answer)
Direct heavy new investment to Legacy Photo Kiosks because low market share automatically signals high growth potential
Withdraw all cash from Cement and allocate it only to the Dog unit
Answer: B — Use surplus cash from Cement, the Cash Cow, to maintain Cloud Analytics, the Star, and selectively build Drone Delivery, the Question Mark; review Legacy Photo Kiosks for harvest or divestment
Working. Classification: Cloud Analytics = Star; Cement = Cash Cow; Drone Delivery = Question Mark; Legacy Photo Kiosks = Dog. Portfolio logic: retain and use surplus Cash Cow cash to support the Star and selected Question Mark with credible growth potential; maintain or build the Star; choose build or divest selectively for the Question Mark; harvest or divest the Dog where resources have stronger alternative uses.
Explanation. Option b is correct. Cement is a low-growth, high-share Cash Cow and is capable of generating cash with comparatively lower investment needs. That cash can support the investment requirements of Cloud Analytics, the Star, and a selective build decision for Drone Delivery, the Question Mark. Legacy Photo Kiosks is a Dog and should be reviewed for harvest, divestment or liquidation rather than receiving automatic heavy investment. Option a weakens the portfolio by starving the Star and maintaining every Dog regardless of prospects. Option c confuses low share with high growth; Legacy Photo Kiosks is low in both. Option d diverts funds away from a cash-generating unit and concentrates them in a low-growth, low-share business.
Where it goes wrong. A portfolio decision should consider both market attractiveness and the cash requirements of each SBU. Question Marks need selective investment, Stars need resources to maintain growth and share, and Dogs should not receive automatic funding.
Authority. Chapter 4: Strategic Choices; Section 4.4.3: Boston Consulting Group (BCG) Growth-Share Matrix; Section 4.4.3.1: BCG Matrix - Post Identification Strategies
Question 15 · 2 marks · Strategic Choices - Intensification Strategies · medium
Scenario. Titan Dynamics sells an established fleet-management software platform to commercial fleet operators in its existing domestic market. It is considering two growth initiatives. Initiative P offers the unchanged platform to fleet operators in a new geographic market in Southeast Asia through new distribution partners. Initiative Q seeks to increase subscriptions, usage and share of wallet among its existing domestic customers through targeted promotions, without materially changing the platform. The board is applying Ansoff's Product-Market Growth Matrix to distinguish the two initiatives.
Which Ansoff strategy describes Titan's Initiative P of selling its unchanged fleet-management platform in a new geographic market?
Market penetration, because the platform is already established
Product development, because new distribution partners are involved
Diversification, because the customers are outside the current domestic market
Market development, because an existing product is being offered in a new market (correct answer)
Answer: D — Market development, because an existing product is being offered in a new market
Working. Initiative P: product = existing fleet-management platform; market = new Southeast Asian geographic market. Existing product + new market = Market Development.
Explanation. Option d is correct. Market development involves selling existing products into new markets, which may include new geographic markets or new distribution channels. Option a is market penetration and requires existing products in existing markets. Option b is product development and involves new or modified products for existing markets; changing distribution partners alone does not create a new product. Option c is diversification and requires new products as well as new markets.
Where it goes wrong. Classify the strategy by whether the product and market are existing or new. A new geography for the unchanged platform is market development, even though the distribution channel also changes.
Authority. Chapter 4: Strategic Choices; Section 4.4.1: Ansoff's Product Market Growth Matrix; Section 4.2.2.3: Types of Growth/Expansion Strategy - Expansion or Growth through Intensification
Question 16 · 1 marks · Strategic Choices - Intensification Strategies · medium
Titan's Initiative Q increases subscriptions and usage among existing domestic customers without materially changing the platform. Which Ansoff strategy is represented?
Explanation. Option c is correct. Market penetration seeks to sell existing products into existing markets and may increase usage, subscriptions or sales to present customers. Option a requires an existing product in a new market. Option b requires a new or materially modified product for an existing market. Option d requires both a new product and a new market.
Where it goes wrong. An increase in sales or customers does not by itself mean market development. When both the product and the market remain existing, the strategy is market penetration.
Chapter 4: Cost of Capital · Section 9: Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) · Chapter 7: Investment Decisions · Section 9.1: Net Present Value Method (NPV) · Section 9: Discounting Techniques - Scenario 3: Disparity in Life of Proposals (Unequal Lives) · Section 9.3: Internal Rate of Return Method (IRR) · Section 9.2: Profitability Index / Desirability Factor / Present Value Index Method · Chapter 6: Financing Decisions - Leverages · Section 3.1: Degree of Operating Leverage (DOL) · Section 4.1: Degree of Financial Leverage (DFL) · Section 5.1: Degree of Combined Leverage (DCL) · Chapter 9: Management of Working Capital · Unit I: Introduction to Working Capital Management · Section 6: Operating or Working Capital Cycle · Section 6.1: Working Capital Based on Operating Cycle · Chapter 3: Strategic Analysis: Internal Environment · Section 3.4.1: Criteria for Building Core Competencies · Chapter 4: Strategic Choices · Section 4.4.3: Boston Consulting Group (BCG) Growth-Share Matrix · Section 4.4.3.1: BCG Matrix - Post Identification Strategies · Section 4.4.1: Ansoff's Product Market Growth Matrix · Section 4.2.2.3: Types of Growth/Expansion Strategy - Expansion or Growth through Intensification
Questions people ask
What does Test 2 cover?
Comprehensive exam-standard case scenarios and MCQs on Investment Decisions - Capital Budgeting Techniques, Financing Decisions - Leverages, Management of Working Capital - Operating Cycle, Strategic Analysis: Internal Environment - Resources and Core Competencies, Strategic Choices - Portfolio Analysis, Strategic Choices - Intensification Strategies across Financial Management (Section A) and Strategic Management (Section B).
How is Test 2 scored?
16 questions across 6 case scenarios carrying 30 marks (14 questions at 2 marks each, and 2 questions at 1 mark each) in 60 minutes with no negative marking.
