HeyArtha HeyArtha

Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 - Test 3: answer key

This chapter-wise practice test covers Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 - Test 3 for CA Intermediate Group 1 students preparing for the May 2027 examination attempt. It carries 50 marks across 25 questions in case scenarios and standalone practical MCQs with a time limit of 75 minutes and no negative marking.

25 questions across 1 chapter, 50 marks and 75 minutes in the timed paper. Every answer below is shown with the working behind it and the authority it rests on.

Law and standards used: Companies Act 2013 and relevant Rules, Limited Liability Partnership Act 2008, General Clauses Act 1897, and FEMA 1999 as in the ICAI Study Material for Paper 2 (August 2025 edition, amendments up to 31 July 2025).

Questions
25
Marks
50
Time limit
75 minutes
Attempt
May 2027
Group
Group 1
Law basis
Companies Act 2013 and relevant Rules, Limited Liability Partnership Act 2008, General Clauses Act 1897, and FEMA 1999 as in the ICAI Study Material for Paper 2 (August 2025 edition, amendments up to 31 July 2025)
Content as of
2026-11-05

Chapters covered

Questions, answers and explanations

Question 1 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · hard

Scenario. Saffron Nutrients LLP manufactures specialty ingredients for pharmaceutical and food-processing companies. Its three partners, Naren, Priya and Ritesh, had agreed to share profits in the ratio of 40:35:25. Naren and Priya were actively involved in managing financial transactions, while Ritesh primarily supervised technical operations. During the financial year 2025-26, Naren and Priya deliberately created fictitious purchase invoices and inflated inventory valuations to obtain additional credit facilities from two banks. Internal e-mails revealed that both partners knowingly coordinated the transactions and used LLP funds to divert part of the borrowed money into accounts controlled by them. The lenders subsequently discovered the fraud and suffered a collective loss of ₹1.10 crore. Ritesh claimed that he had neither participated in nor known about the fraudulent arrangement. The LLP initially argued that the liability of every partner remained restricted to the agreed contribution. During a separate investigation, it was also discovered that an employee, Mohan, had independently manipulated customer dispatch certificates to obtain personal kickbacks from a supplier. The managing partners maintained that Mohan had acted without any authority, knowledge or approval of the LLP. A customer suffered a loss of ₹8 lakh due to this independent misconduct and demanded compensation from both Mohan and the LLP. The lenders and customer have initiated legal proceedings. The designated partners have requested an opinion regarding unlimited civil liability, the distinction between participating and non-participating partners, criminal punishment for fraudulent business conduct and the availability of the statutory defence where fraudulent acts are committed without the LLP's knowledge.

The lenders establish that Naren and Priya deliberately participated in the fraudulent arrangement to obtain credit facilities for Saffron Nutrients LLP. Which statement correctly determines the civil liability arising from these facts?

  1. The liability of the LLP and the partners who acted with intent to defraud becomes unlimited for the debts or other liabilities of the LLP. (correct answer)
  2. The liability of the LLP remains unlimited, but every partner automatically becomes personally liable irrespective of participation in the fraud.
  3. The liability of each partner remains restricted to the agreed contribution because an LLP is a separate legal entity.
  4. Only the partners who received the diverted money become liable, while the LLP remains protected in every circumstance.

Answer: A — The liability of the LLP and the partners who acted with intent to defraud becomes unlimited for the debts or other liabilities of the LLP.

Explanation. Section 30(1) provides that where an LLP or any of its partners acts with intent to defraud creditors or for any fraudulent purpose, the liability of the LLP and the partners who acted with such intent becomes unlimited for the debts and other liabilities of the LLP. Naren and Priya therefore lose the ordinary protection of limited liability. The primary distractor incorrectly assumes that every partner becomes personally liable merely because the LLP was involved in fraud.

Where it goes wrong. Assuming that limited liability remains absolute even when a partner deliberately participates in fraudulent conduct.

Authority. Section 30(1) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

Question 2 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · hard

Ritesh establishes that he neither participated in the fraudulent transactions nor knew about them. The lenders nevertheless argue that all three partners should face unlimited liability because they were members of the same LLP. Which conclusion is most appropriate under Section 30(1)?

  1. Ritesh becomes unlimitedly liable because every partner automatically participates in the fraudulent conduct of another partner.
  2. Ritesh becomes liable for the entire debt because the LLP's separate legal personality disappears whenever fraud is discovered.
  3. Ritesh is not covered by the specific unlimited-liability rule merely because he is a partner, since he did not act with fraudulent intent. (correct answer)
  4. Ritesh becomes liable for half the debt because the other two partners participated in the fraudulent arrangement.

Answer: C — Ritesh is not covered by the specific unlimited-liability rule merely because he is a partner, since he did not act with fraudulent intent.

Explanation. Section 30(1) specifically makes the partners who acted with intent to defraud subject to unlimited liability. It does not automatically impose this exceptional liability on every partner merely because the LLP was involved in fraudulent transactions. Ritesh's established non-participation and lack of fraudulent intent therefore distinguish his position from Naren and Priya. The primary distractor incorrectly transfers one partner's fraudulent conduct to every other partner.

Where it goes wrong. Confusing the fraudulent liability of participating partners with the ordinary limited liability protection of non-participating partners.

Authority. Section 30(1) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008; Section 28 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

Question 3 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · medium

The investigation establishes that Naren, Priya and another individual knowingly participated in carrying on the fraudulent business arrangement. Which punishment can be imposed on a person found knowingly to be a party to carrying on business with the prescribed fraudulent intent?

  1. Imprisonment up to three years and a fine between ₹25,000 and ₹2 lakh.
  2. Imprisonment up to five years and a fine between ₹50,000 and ₹5 lakh. (correct answer)
  3. Imprisonment up to two years and a fine between ₹10,000 and ₹5 lakh.
  4. Imprisonment up to five years and a fixed fine of ₹1 lakh.

Answer: B — Imprisonment up to five years and a fine between ₹50,000 and ₹5 lakh.

Explanation. Section 30(2), as amended by the Limited Liability Partnership (Amendment) Act, 2021, provides imprisonment for a term extending up to five years and a fine not less than ₹50,000 but which may extend to ₹5 lakh. The provision applies to every person knowingly party to carrying on business with the fraudulent intent contemplated by Section 30(1). The primary distractor incorrectly uses the earlier two-year imprisonment period that existed before the 2021 amendment.

Where it goes wrong. Applying the pre-2021 imprisonment period instead of the amended five-year maximum.

Authority. Section 30(2) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008; Limited Liability Partnership (Amendment) Act, 2021

Question 4 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · hard

Mohan, an employee of Saffron Nutrients LLP, independently manipulated dispatch certificates to obtain personal kickbacks. The LLP establishes that Mohan acted fraudulently without its knowledge or authority. A customer suffered a loss due to the conduct. Which statement correctly determines the position under Section 30(3)?

  1. Neither Mohan nor the LLP can be required to compensate the customer because the misconduct was not authorised.
  2. Only the LLP must compensate the customer because employees can never face personal consequences under Section 30.
  3. Both the LLP and Mohan must compensate the customer even when the LLP proves that it had no knowledge of the fraudulent conduct.
  4. Mohan may be liable to compensate the customer, while the LLP is not liable under this provision if the statutory lack-of-knowledge exception is established. (correct answer)

Answer: D — Mohan may be liable to compensate the customer, while the LLP is not liable under this provision if the statutory lack-of-knowledge exception is established.

Explanation. Section 30(3) provides that an LLP and any partner, designated partner or employee conducting its affairs fraudulently shall be liable to pay compensation to persons suffering loss or damage because of such conduct. However, the LLP is not liable where the relevant partner, designated partner or employee acted fraudulently without the LLP's knowledge. Mohan's personal liability is therefore not eliminated by the LLP's defence. The primary distractor ignores the express statutory exception available to the LLP.

Where it goes wrong. Assuming that the LLP must compensate victims in every instance of employee fraud, irrespective of its knowledge.

Authority. Section 30(3) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

Question 5 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · medium

Scenario. Prism Dyes LLP manufactures industrial colouring compounds and has an agreed contribution of ₹24.80 lakh. Its Statement of Account and Solvency for the immediately preceding financial year records turnover of ₹39.60 lakh. Its provisional turnover for the current financial year has already reached ₹43 lakh. The partners are considering whether the LLP continues to qualify as a small LLP for the applicable statutory benefits. A competing concern, Orbit Colour LLP, has contribution of ₹20 lakh but reported turnover of ₹40.50 lakh in its Statement of Account and Solvency for the immediately preceding financial year. Neither LLP satisfies any separate alternative prescribed classification condition. Both LLPs subsequently failed to file Form 8 within the prescribed period. Their forms were eventually submitted 45 days after the respective statutory due dates. The normal filing fee applicable to each Form 8 is ₹1,000. The finance manager of Prism argued that both LLPs should receive identical additional-fee treatment because their contributions were below ₹25 lakh. Separately, an adjudicating officer proposed a penalty of ₹2.40 lakh against Prism and ₹1.20 lakh against each of its two designated partners under an applicable penalty provision. Prism's managing partner argued that a small LLP is entitled to complete exemption from statutory penalties. The compliance consultant disagreed and pointed out that the LLP Act provides a specific concession involving reduction of penalties subject to monetary ceilings. The partners now seek clarification regarding the small LLP eligibility tests, the relevant turnover period, differential filing fees and the extent of the statutory penalty concession.

Prism Dyes LLP has contribution of ₹24.80 lakh, preceding financial year's turnover of ₹39.60 lakh and provisional current-year turnover of ₹43 lakh. No higher prescribed threshold or alternative classification condition applies. Which conclusion correctly determines its status under Section 2(1)(ta)?

  1. Prism qualifies as a small LLP because its contribution and turnover in the immediately preceding financial year do not exceed the applicable thresholds. (correct answer)
  2. Prism does not qualify because the contribution must be strictly below ₹25 lakh and cannot equal the prescribed threshold.
  3. Prism does not qualify because current-year provisional turnover exceeding ₹40 lakh automatically disqualifies it.
  4. Prism qualifies only if both the current financial year's turnover and the preceding financial year's turnover remain below ₹40 lakh.

Answer: A — Prism qualifies as a small LLP because its contribution and turnover in the immediately preceding financial year do not exceed the applicable thresholds.

Explanation. Section 2(1)(ta) requires contribution not exceeding ₹25 lakh and turnover, as per the Statement of Accounts and Solvency for the immediately preceding financial year, not exceeding ₹40 lakh, subject to any higher prescribed amounts. Prism satisfies both tests: contribution is ₹24.80 lakh and preceding-year turnover is ₹39.60 lakh. Current-year provisional turnover is not the measurement specified for this definition. The primary distractor incorrectly substitutes current-year turnover for preceding-year turnover.

Where it goes wrong. Using current-year provisional turnover instead of turnover reported in the immediately preceding financial year's Statement of Accounts and Solvency.

Authority. Section 2(1)(ta) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008; Limited Liability Partnership (Amendment) Act, 2021

Question 6 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · hard

Orbit Colour LLP has contribution of ₹20 lakh but its Statement of Account and Solvency for the immediately preceding financial year reports turnover of ₹40.50 lakh. Its current-year turnover has fallen to ₹35 lakh. Assuming no higher prescribed thresholds or alternative classification conditions apply, which conclusion is correct?

  1. Orbit qualifies as a small LLP because its contribution is below ₹25 lakh and its current-year turnover is below ₹40 lakh.
  2. Orbit qualifies because contribution and turnover are alternative independent tests, and satisfying either test is sufficient.
  3. Orbit does not qualify because the preceding financial year's turnover exceeds ₹40 lakh, even though its contribution is within the contribution threshold. (correct answer)
  4. Orbit qualifies because the small LLP definition uses the average turnover of the preceding and current financial years.

Answer: C — Orbit does not qualify because the preceding financial year's turnover exceeds ₹40 lakh, even though its contribution is within the contribution threshold.

Explanation. The statutory definition requires both contribution and immediately preceding financial year's turnover to satisfy their respective limits, unless another prescribed classification route applies. Orbit satisfies the contribution test but fails the turnover test because ₹40.50 lakh exceeds ₹40 lakh. The current-year reduction does not change the measurement period expressly prescribed by Section 2(1)(ta). The primary distractor incorrectly treats the two financial thresholds as independent alternative tests.

Where it goes wrong. Treating contribution and turnover as alternative tests instead of applying both statutory thresholds together.

Authority. Section 2(1)(ta)(i) and (ii) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

Question 7 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · hard

Prism Dyes LLP and Orbit Colour LLP each filed Form 8 after a delay of 45 days. The normal filing fee is ₹1,000 per form. Prism qualifies as a small LLP, whereas Orbit does not. What additional filing fee is payable by each LLP under the applicable MCA fee schedule?

  1. Prism must pay ₹2,000 and Orbit must pay ₹4,000 as additional filing fees.
  2. Prism must pay ₹4,000 and Orbit must pay ₹8,000 as additional filing fees. (correct answer)
  3. Both LLPs must pay ₹4,000 because their respective forms were filed in the same delay period.
  4. Prism must pay ₹8,000 and Orbit must pay ₹4,000 because small LLPs attract the higher multiplier.

Answer: B — Prism must pay ₹4,000 and Orbit must pay ₹8,000 as additional filing fees.

Explanation. A delay of 45 days falls in the category of more than 30 days and up to 60 days. Under the MCA Form 8 fee schedule, the additional fee is four times the normal filing fee for a small LLP and eight times the normal filing fee for another LLP. Therefore, Prism pays ₹4,000 and Orbit pays ₹8,000 as additional fees. The primary distractor incorrectly applies the same multiplier to both classes of LLP.

Where it goes wrong. Ignoring the differential additional-fee multipliers applicable to small LLPs and other LLPs.

Authority. Section 69 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008; MCA Instruction Kit for LLP Form No. 8, Table 2: Additional Fees in Case of Delay

Question 8 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · medium

An adjudicating officer proposes a penalty of ₹2.40 lakh against Prism Dyes LLP and ₹1.20 lakh against each designated partner. Assume the penalties are imposed under provisions to which Section 76A's small LLP concession applies. What amounts become payable after applying the one-half concession and the prescribed maximum ceilings?

  1. ₹1.20 lakh by the LLP and ₹60,000 by each designated partner.
  2. ₹2.40 lakh by the LLP and ₹1.20 lakh by each designated partner because small LLPs receive no penalty concession.
  3. ₹60,000 by the LLP and ₹30,000 by each designated partner because one-fourth of the original penalty applies.
  4. ₹1 lakh by the LLP and ₹50,000 by each designated partner because the one-half amounts exceed their respective maximum ceilings. (correct answer)

Answer: D — ₹1 lakh by the LLP and ₹50,000 by each designated partner because the one-half amounts exceed their respective maximum ceilings.

Explanation. Section 76A(3) provides that an applicable penalty payable by a small LLP or its partner or designated partner is one-half of the penalty specified in the relevant provision, subject to a maximum of ₹1 lakh for the LLP and ₹50,000 for each partner, designated partner or other person, as applicable. The calculated half amounts are ₹1.20 lakh and ₹60,000 respectively, both exceeding their individual ceilings. Therefore, the final payable amounts are capped at ₹1 lakh and ₹50,000.

Where it goes wrong. Calculating one-half of the penalty but forgetting to apply the separate statutory maximum ceilings.

Authority. Section 76A(3) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008; Limited Liability Partnership (Amendment) Act, 2021

Question 9 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · hard

Scenario. Arclight Components LLP manufactures automated machinery for industrial customers. Its LLP Agreement provides for contributions from the partners in cash, movable and immovable property, intellectual property and contractual services. Rupa contributes ₹8 lakh in cash, a CNC machine valued at ₹6 lakh and rights over a warehouse. Another partner, Eshan, contributes a patent licence, a promissory note and a written undertaking to provide additional cash in the future. A third partner agrees to contribute software-development services to be performed over the next six months. The accounts department initially records only the cash contributions and the CNC machine, arguing that all other items are either intangible or relate to future performance. The finance director proposes that the partners themselves should determine the monetary values of all remaining contributions without obtaining any external valuation. During the same period, Eshan undertakes an obligation under the LLP Agreement to contribute an additional ₹15 lakh. A trade creditor extends credit to the LLP specifically relying on this obligation. Subsequently, the partners privately agree to reduce Eshan's contribution obligation to ₹5 lakh, but the creditor receives no notice of this compromise. When Eshan refuses to honour the original commitment, the creditor seeks enforcement of the original obligation. The LLP's auditor also questions the valuation and disclosure of the non-cash contributions. The partners seek advice on the permissible forms of contribution, professional valuation requirements, accounting disclosure and the rights of creditors relying on contractual contribution obligations.

The partners of Arclight Components LLP propose to include the following items as their contributions: money, a CNC machine, rights over a warehouse, a patent licence, a promissory note, an agreement to contribute cash in the future and a contract for software-development services to be performed over six months. Which conclusion is correct under Section 32?

  1. All these items may constitute contributions because the Act permits money, tangible and intangible property, promissory notes and agreements or contracts for services. (correct answer)
  2. Only money and tangible movable property may constitute contributions because future services and intangible rights are excluded.
  3. Only money, promissory notes and completed service contracts qualify because immovable and intangible property cannot be contributed.
  4. Only property already transferred to the LLP qualifies because contractual commitments and future contributions are legally inadmissible.

Answer: A — All these items may constitute contributions because the Act permits money, tangible and intangible property, promissory notes and agreements or contracts for services.

Explanation. Section 32(1) permits contributions consisting of tangible movable or immovable property, intangible property and other benefits. It expressly includes money, promissory notes, other agreements to contribute cash or property, and contracts for services performed or to be performed. Accordingly, the proposed contributions are not restricted to cash or physical property. The primary distractor incorrectly excludes intangible property and future service commitments from the statutory definition.

Where it goes wrong. Assuming that only money and physical assets can qualify as contributions to an LLP.

Authority. Section 32(1) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

Question 10 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · medium

Arclight's partners want to value the patent licence, warehouse rights and software-development services forming part of their contributions. They propose appointing a person who does not have any prescribed professional qualification and recording the values without identifying the nature of each contribution. Which approach complies with the LLP Rules?

  1. The partners may value every contribution themselves because the LLP Agreement determines the monetary value conclusively.
  2. Only a Chartered Accountant can value non-cash contributions, and the nature of each contribution need not be recorded separately.
  3. A practising Chartered Accountant, practising Cost Accountant or approved valuer from the Central Government's panel may value such contributions, which must be accounted for and disclosed with their nature and amount. (correct answer)
  4. A statutory auditor must value every contribution, and disclosure is required only when the LLP receives immovable property.

Answer: C — A practising Chartered Accountant, practising Cost Accountant or approved valuer from the Central Government's panel may value such contributions, which must be accounted for and disclosed with their nature and amount.

Explanation. Rule 23(1) requires every contribution to be accounted for and disclosed in the LLP's accounts along with its nature and amount. Under Rule 23(2), contributions involving tangible or intangible property, other benefits or service agreements must be valued by a practising Chartered Accountant, practising Cost Accountant or approved valuer from the panel maintained by the Central Government. The primary distractor incorrectly assumes that the partners can determine all such values without following the prescribed valuation procedure.

Where it goes wrong. Confusing the LLP's freedom to agree on contributions with the prescribed professional valuation requirements.

Authority. Section 32(2) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008; Rule 23(1) and Rule 23(2) of the Limited Liability Partnership Rules, 2009

Question 11 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · hard

Eshan undertook under Arclight's LLP Agreement to contribute an additional ₹15 lakh. A trade creditor extended credit to the LLP specifically relying on this obligation and had no notice of the subsequent private compromise reducing Eshan's commitment to ₹5 lakh. Eshan now refuses to contribute more than ₹5 lakh. Which remedy is available to the creditor?

  1. The creditor can enforce only ₹5 lakh because any subsequent compromise between partners automatically binds every creditor.
  2. The creditor may enforce the original ₹15 lakh obligation because it extended credit in reliance on that obligation without notice of the compromise. (correct answer)
  3. The creditor cannot enforce the obligation because only the LLP itself can demand a contribution from its partners.
  4. The creditor may enforce ₹15 lakh only after obtaining separate approval from the National Company Law Tribunal.

Answer: B — The creditor may enforce the original ₹15 lakh obligation because it extended credit in reliance on that obligation without notice of the compromise.

Explanation. Section 33(1) requires a partner's obligation to contribute money, property, benefits or services to be governed by the LLP Agreement. Section 33(2) protects a creditor who extends credit or otherwise acts in reliance on such an obligation without notice of a compromise between partners. Such creditor may enforce the original obligation against the partner. The primary distractor incorrectly assumes that a private compromise automatically defeats the rights of an uninformed creditor.

Where it goes wrong. Overlooking the statutory protection granted to creditors who rely on an original contribution obligation without notice of a compromise.

Authority. Section 33(1) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008; Section 33(2) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

Question 12 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · medium

A partner agrees under the LLP Agreement to provide specialised software-development services over a period of six months instead of transferring money or physical property. Another partner argues that such services cannot constitute a contribution because they will be performed after the date of incorporation. Which statement correctly determines the legal position and the partner's obligation?

  1. The services cannot constitute contribution because only services already completed before incorporation are permitted.
  2. The services qualify only if the partner converts their estimated monetary value into cash before incorporation.
  3. The services qualify only when they relate to movable or immovable property owned by the LLP.
  4. A contract for services to be performed may constitute contribution, and the partner's obligation is governed by the LLP Agreement. (correct answer)

Answer: D — A contract for services to be performed may constitute contribution, and the partner's obligation is governed by the LLP Agreement.

Explanation. Section 32(1) expressly recognises contracts for services performed or to be performed as permissible forms of contribution. Therefore, a partner may contribute an agreed service commitment even though the work will be performed in the future. Section 33(1) further provides that the obligation to perform such services must be in accordance with the LLP Agreement. The primary distractor incorrectly restricts contributions to services already completed before the contribution is made.

Where it goes wrong. Assuming that only completed services can qualify as contributions and that future contractual services are excluded.

Authority. Section 32(1) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008; Section 33(1) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

Question 13 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · hard

Scenario. Vayu Renewables LLP undertakes installation and maintenance of solar-power equipment across Madhya Pradesh. The LLP has total contribution of ₹23.50 lakh and its Statement of Account and Solvency for the immediately preceding financial year records turnover of ₹38.50 lakh. It therefore claims the classification available to a small LLP. During a period of financial difficulty, partner Mahir secretly created fictitious equipment-supply invoices and used them to obtain additional credit from lenders. The documents were prepared without the knowledge or authority of the other partners, and the LLP's internal records show that the transactions were never approved through its ordinary authorisation process. Mahir also persuaded an employee, Sohan, to manipulate certain records. Sohan knowingly participated in the fraudulent arrangement and received a personal financial benefit. The lenders subsequently suffered losses and commenced proceedings. Mahir contends that his personal liability should remain restricted because the LLP is a small LLP. The finance manager further argues that the special concession available to small LLPs should automatically reduce every monetary consequence, including fines connected with fraudulent business. The lenders, however, distinguish between statutory penalties for ordinary compliance defaults, unlimited civil liability arising from fraud and criminal punishment for persons knowingly participating in fraudulent business. They also seek compensation for their losses. The LLP intends to establish that Mahir's acts were committed without its knowledge or authority. Its legal adviser has been asked to examine the effect of small LLP classification on fraudulent liability, the criminal consequences for knowing participants, the statutory defence available to the LLP and the separate right of injured persons to claim compensation.

Vayu Renewables LLP satisfies the small LLP contribution and turnover thresholds. Its partner Mahir nevertheless deliberately created fictitious invoices with intent to defraud lenders. Mahir argues that the small LLP classification automatically caps his liability at his agreed contribution. Which statement is correct?

  1. Small LLP classification does not remove Section 30's unlimited-liability consequences for an LLP and partners who act with fraudulent intent. (correct answer)
  2. Small LLP classification automatically protects every partner from unlimited liability, irrespective of participation in fraudulent conduct.
  3. Small LLP classification converts unlimited liability into liability restricted to twice the partner's agreed contribution.
  4. Small LLP classification removes civil liability for fraud but retains criminal liability only against the designated partners.

Answer: A — Small LLP classification does not remove Section 30's unlimited-liability consequences for an LLP and partners who act with fraudulent intent.

Explanation. Small LLP status provides specified compliance and penalty concessions, but it does not create immunity from the fraudulent-liability provisions of Section 30. Where a partner acts with intent to defraud creditors, Section 30(1) makes that partner's liability unlimited. Section 76A concerns reduction of applicable statutory penalties; it does not convert unlimited civil liability arising from fraud into limited liability. The primary distractor incorrectly treats the small LLP classification as a universal liability exemption.

Where it goes wrong. Confusing the small LLP penalty concession with protection against unlimited civil liability arising from fraud.

Authority. Section 2(1)(ta) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008; Section 30(1) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008; Section 76A(3) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

Question 14 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · medium

Mahir and Sohan knowingly participated in carrying on Vayu Renewables LLP's fraudulent business arrangement. Mahir argues that because Vayu is a small LLP, the criminal punishment under Section 30(2) should automatically be reduced by one-half under Section 76A. Which conclusion correctly applies the two provisions?

  1. Both imprisonment and fine must be reduced by one-half because Section 76A applies to every consequence under the LLP Act.
  2. The criminal fine must be halved, although the maximum imprisonment period remains unchanged.
  3. The criminal punishment under Section 30(2) is governed by its own imprisonment and fine provisions; the small LLP penalty concession does not automatically reduce that punishment. (correct answer)
  4. The imprisonment is waived entirely, but the fine remains payable at the normal rate.

Answer: C — The criminal punishment under Section 30(2) is governed by its own imprisonment and fine provisions; the small LLP penalty concession does not automatically reduce that punishment.

Explanation. Section 30(2) prescribes criminal punishment for every person knowingly party to carrying on business with the fraudulent intent contemplated by the Act. It provides imprisonment up to five years and a fine ranging from ₹50,000 to ₹5 lakh. Section 76A(3) provides a concession concerning penalties payable for statutory non-compliance; it does not automatically halve criminal punishment under Section 30(2). The primary distractor incorrectly treats a penalty concession as a reduction of criminal punishment.

Where it goes wrong. Applying the one-half statutory penalty concession to imprisonment and criminal fines under the fraud provision.

Authority. Section 30(2) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008; Section 76A(3) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

Question 15 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · hard

Vayu Renewables LLP produces internal records showing that Mahir independently committed fraud without the knowledge or authority of the LLP. Assume the LLP successfully establishes these facts. Which statement correctly applies the special qualification in Section 30(1) regarding the LLP's own liability?

  1. The LLP must remain liable to the same extent as Mahir because the fraud was committed by a person who was its partner.
  2. The LLP may avoid liability to the same extent as Mahir if it establishes that the fraudulent act was without its knowledge or authority, although Mahir's own liability remains unaffected. (correct answer)
  3. The LLP automatically transfers all unlimited liability to the other partners once it denies authorising the fraudulent transaction.
  4. The LLP is relieved only if Mahir was never a partner and the lender had independent notice of the fraud.

Answer: B — The LLP may avoid liability to the same extent as Mahir if it establishes that the fraudulent act was without its knowledge or authority, although Mahir's own liability remains unaffected.

Explanation. Section 30(1) provides that where a partner carries out a fraudulent act, the LLP is liable to the same extent as the partner unless the LLP establishes that the act was without its knowledge or authority. If Vayu successfully establishes this statutory exception, it may avoid the liability otherwise attributable to Mahir's conduct. This does not absolve Mahir, who personally participated in the fraudulent act. The primary distractor ignores the express defence available to the LLP.

Where it goes wrong. Assuming that the LLP must always bear the same fraudulent liability as a partner, even after establishing the statutory exception.

Authority. Section 30(1) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

Question 16 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · medium

The lenders of Vayu Renewables LLP have suffered financial losses because of the fraudulent conduct of Mahir and Sohan. They seek compensation in addition to pursuing criminal proceedings. Which statement correctly describes the compensation provision under Section 30(3)?

  1. Compensation can be claimed only from the LLP, and the individual persons who conducted its affairs fraudulently cannot be required to compensate victims.
  2. Compensation is available only after the criminal proceedings result in a conviction under Section 30(2).
  3. Compensation is restricted to creditors of the LLP and cannot be claimed by any other person suffering loss or damage.
  4. The LLP and the partner, designated partner or employee who conducted its affairs fraudulently may be liable to compensate any person suffering resulting loss or damage, subject to the statutory LLP exception. (correct answer)

Answer: D — The LLP and the partner, designated partner or employee who conducted its affairs fraudulently may be liable to compensate any person suffering resulting loss or damage, subject to the statutory LLP exception.

Explanation. Section 30(3) provides that where the LLP or any partner, designated partner or employee conducts the affairs of the LLP fraudulently, the LLP and the relevant persons may be liable to pay compensation to any person suffering loss or damage because of that conduct. This civil compensation remedy is without prejudice to criminal proceedings. The LLP may claim the statutory exception where the relevant individual acted fraudulently without its knowledge. The primary distractor incorrectly restricts compensation exclusively to creditors.

Where it goes wrong. Confusing the compensation remedy with criminal punishment or assuming that only creditors can claim compensation.

Authority. Section 30(3) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

Question 17 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · medium

Scenario. A proposed small LLP has total contribution of ₹24 lakh and turnover of ₹40.01 lakh as per the Statement of Accounts and Solvency for the immediately preceding financial year. Its provisional turnover for the current financial year is only ₹38 lakh. No higher prescribed threshold or alternative prescribed classification condition applies. The promoters claim that the current-year reduction should be considered while determining small LLP status. Which conclusion is correct?

A proposed small LLP has total contribution of ₹24 lakh and turnover of ₹40.01 lakh as per the Statement of Accounts and Solvency for the immediately preceding financial year. Its provisional turnover for the current financial year is only ₹38 lakh. No higher prescribed threshold or alternative prescribed classification condition applies. The promoters claim that the current-year reduction should be considered while determining small LLP status. Which conclusion is correct?

  1. It does not qualify as a small LLP because its preceding financial year's turnover exceeds ₹40 lakh, notwithstanding its contribution and current-year turnover. (correct answer)
  2. It qualifies as a small LLP because its contribution is within ₹25 lakh and its current-year turnover is below ₹40 lakh.
  3. It qualifies because the turnover test is optional when the contribution of an LLP is below ₹25 lakh.
  4. It qualifies because turnover up to ₹40.01 lakh may be rounded down while determining the statutory threshold.

Answer: A — It does not qualify as a small LLP because its preceding financial year's turnover exceeds ₹40 lakh, notwithstanding its contribution and current-year turnover.

Explanation. The small LLP definition requires both contribution and turnover to satisfy their applicable thresholds. Turnover must be measured using the Statement of Accounts and Solvency for the immediately preceding financial year. Here, the preceding-year turnover is ₹40.01 lakh, which exceeds the ₹40 lakh threshold. The current-year provisional turnover is irrelevant to this particular test. The primary distractor incorrectly substitutes current-year figures for the statutory preceding-year measurement.

Where it goes wrong. Ignoring the immediately preceding financial year and using the lower current-year provisional turnover.

Authority. Section 2(1)(ta)(i) and (ii) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

Question 18 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · hard

Scenario. A partner proposes contributing a patent licence and contractual rights to provide specialised consultancy services to an LLP. The LLP's managing partners intend to obtain a valuation report from an independent individual who has no professional accounting qualification and is not an approved valuer from the Central Government's panel. The managing partners argue that their unanimous approval makes the valuation sufficient. Which valuation arrangement complies with the prescribed LLP Rules?

A partner proposes contributing a patent licence and contractual rights to provide specialised consultancy services to an LLP. The LLP's managing partners intend to obtain a valuation report from an independent individual who has no professional accounting qualification and is not an approved valuer from the Central Government's panel. The managing partners argue that their unanimous approval makes the valuation sufficient. Which valuation arrangement complies with the prescribed LLP Rules?

  1. The valuation may be undertaken by any independent individual if all partners approve the report unanimously.
  2. The valuation must be undertaken exclusively by a Chartered Accountant and cannot be undertaken by any other prescribed professional.
  3. The valuation may be undertaken by a practising Chartered Accountant, practising Cost Accountant or approved valuer from the panel maintained by the Central Government. (correct answer)
  4. The valuation must be undertaken exclusively by the auditor appointed by the LLP, irrespective of professional qualifications.

Answer: C — The valuation may be undertaken by a practising Chartered Accountant, practising Cost Accountant or approved valuer from the panel maintained by the Central Government.

Explanation. Rule 23(2) specifies that contributions consisting of tangible or intangible property, other benefits or agreements and contracts for services must be valued by a practising Chartered Accountant, practising Cost Accountant or approved valuer from the panel maintained by the Central Government. Unanimous approval by partners does not replace these prescribed valuation alternatives. Rule 23(1) separately requires disclosure of the contribution's nature and amount in the LLP accounts. The primary distractor incorrectly treats private partner approval as sufficient professional valuation.

Where it goes wrong. Assuming that unanimous approval by partners can replace the professional valuation requirement under Rule 23.

Authority. Section 32 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008; Rule 23(1) and Rule 23(2) of the Limited Liability Partnership Rules, 2009

Question 19 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · hard

Scenario. A partner undertook under the LLP Agreement to contribute ₹18 lakh to an LLP. A financial institution advanced ₹12 lakh to the LLP specifically in reliance on this contribution obligation. Subsequently, the partners entered into a compromise reducing the contribution obligation to ₹6 lakh. The financial institution had received no notice of the compromise before advancing the money. The partner now offers to contribute only ₹6 lakh. Which statement correctly determines the financial institution's statutory remedy?

A partner undertook under the LLP Agreement to contribute ₹18 lakh to an LLP. A financial institution advanced ₹12 lakh to the LLP specifically in reliance on this contribution obligation. Subsequently, the partners entered into a compromise reducing the contribution obligation to ₹6 lakh. The financial institution had received no notice of the compromise before advancing the money. The partner now offers to contribute only ₹6 lakh. Which statement correctly determines the financial institution's statutory remedy?

  1. The financial institution can enforce only ₹6 lakh because a compromise between partners automatically overrides earlier obligations.
  2. The financial institution may enforce the original ₹18 lakh obligation against the partner because it extended credit in reliance on that obligation without notice of the compromise. (correct answer)
  3. The financial institution cannot enforce any contribution obligation because only an LLP can enforce the LLP Agreement.
  4. The financial institution can enforce ₹18 lakh only if the Tribunal separately approves the compromise between the partners.

Answer: B — The financial institution may enforce the original ₹18 lakh obligation against the partner because it extended credit in reliance on that obligation without notice of the compromise.

Explanation. Section 33(2) protects creditors who extend credit or otherwise act in reliance on a partner's contribution obligation under the LLP Agreement without notice of a compromise between the partners. Such a creditor may enforce the original obligation against the partner. The institution advanced funds in reliance on the ₹18 lakh commitment and had no notice of the subsequent compromise. The primary distractor incorrectly assumes that an undisclosed private compromise can defeat the creditor's statutory right.

Where it goes wrong. Overlooking the creditor's statutory right to enforce the original contribution obligation where it acted without notice of a compromise.

Authority. Section 33(1) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008; Section 33(2) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

Question 20 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · hard

Scenario. An adjudicating officer determines that an LLP and one designated partner are liable to penalties of ₹2.40 lakh and ₹1.20 lakh respectively under applicable provisions. The LLP establishes that it qualifies as a small LLP and that the concession under Section 76A applies. Calculate the final amount payable by each after applying the one-half concession and the separate statutory ceilings.

An adjudicating officer determines that an LLP and one designated partner are liable to penalties of ₹2.40 lakh and ₹1.20 lakh respectively under applicable provisions. The LLP establishes that it qualifies as a small LLP and that the concession under Section 76A applies. Calculate the final amount payable by each after applying the one-half concession and the separate statutory ceilings.

  1. The LLP must pay ₹1.20 lakh and the designated partner must pay ₹60,000 because only the half-penalty calculation applies.
  2. The LLP must pay ₹60,000 and the designated partner must pay ₹30,000 because small LLPs receive a one-fourth penalty concession.
  3. The LLP must pay ₹2.40 lakh and the designated partner must pay ₹1.20 lakh because the concession concerns filing fees alone.
  4. The LLP must pay ₹1 lakh and the designated partner must pay ₹50,000 because the calculated half penalties exceed their respective statutory ceilings. (correct answer)

Answer: D — The LLP must pay ₹1 lakh and the designated partner must pay ₹50,000 because the calculated half penalties exceed their respective statutory ceilings.

Explanation. The one-half concession reduces the LLP's calculated penalty to ₹1.20 lakh and the designated partner's calculated penalty to ₹60,000. Section 76A(3), however, imposes separate maximum ceilings of ₹1 lakh for the LLP and ₹50,000 for each partner, designated partner or other person, as applicable. Therefore, the final amounts become ₹1 lakh and ₹50,000. The primary distractor applies the one-half reduction but overlooks the separate statutory maximum limits.

Where it goes wrong. Applying the one-half reduction without applying the statutory ceilings separately to the LLP and the individual.

Authority. Section 76A(3) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

Question 21 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · medium

Scenario. A partner of an LLP agrees to contribute professional software-development services that will be performed over the next eight months. The LLP Agreement records the nature of the services and the partner's corresponding contribution obligation. The partner later argues that only completed services or money already transferred can constitute contributions. Which statement correctly determines the legal position?

A partner of an LLP agrees to contribute professional software-development services that will be performed over the next eight months. The LLP Agreement records the nature of the services and the partner's corresponding contribution obligation. The partner later argues that only completed services or money already transferred can constitute contributions. Which statement correctly determines the legal position?

  1. A future service commitment cannot qualify because Section 32 recognises only tangible and intangible property already transferred.
  2. A future service commitment qualifies only after the partner converts its monetary value into a promissory note.
  3. A contract for services to be performed may constitute contribution, and the partner's obligation to perform them is governed by the LLP Agreement. (correct answer)
  4. A future service commitment qualifies only when approved separately by every creditor of the LLP.

Answer: C — A contract for services to be performed may constitute contribution, and the partner's obligation to perform them is governed by the LLP Agreement.

Explanation. Section 32(1) expressly includes contracts for services performed or to be performed as permissible forms of contribution. Section 33(1) provides that a partner's obligation to perform services or contribute other benefits must be in accordance with the LLP Agreement. Consequently, the partner's future service commitment is legally capable of constituting a contribution. The primary distractor incorrectly limits the provision to services already completed or assets already transferred.

Where it goes wrong. Assuming that future contractual services cannot constitute contributions under Section 32.

Authority. Section 32(1) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008; Section 33(1) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

Question 22 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · hard

Scenario. A small LLP and another LLP, which does not qualify as a small LLP, are required to file Form 8. Both fail to file the form on time and eventually submit it after a delay of 230 days. The normal filing fee is ₹1,000 per form. Under the applicable MCA additional-fee schedule, which statement correctly compares their additional filing fees?

A small LLP and another LLP, which does not qualify as a small LLP, are required to file Form 8. Both fail to file the form on time and eventually submit it after a delay of 230 days. The normal filing fee is ₹1,000 per form. Under the applicable MCA additional-fee schedule, which statement correctly compares their additional filing fees?

  1. The small LLP pays ₹30,000 and the other LLP pays ₹15,000 because the larger entity receives the lower multiplier.
  2. Both LLPs pay ₹15,000 because the delay falls within the same statutory period.
  3. The small LLP pays ₹15,000 and the other LLP pays ₹30,000 as additional filing fees. (correct answer)
  4. The small LLP pays ₹10,000 and the other LLP pays ₹20,000 because the applicable multiplier is ten times.

Answer: C — The small LLP pays ₹15,000 and the other LLP pays ₹30,000 as additional filing fees.

Explanation. A delay of 230 days falls within the category of more than 180 days and up to 360 days. The Form 8 fee schedule prescribes an additional fee of 15 times the normal filing fee for a small LLP and 30 times the normal filing fee for another LLP. On a normal fee of ₹1,000, the respective additional fees are ₹15,000 and ₹30,000. The primary distractor incorrectly reverses the differential multipliers.

Where it goes wrong. Selecting the wrong delay band or reversing the additional-fee multipliers applicable to small and other LLPs.

Authority. Section 69 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008; MCA Instruction Kit for LLP Form No. 8, Table 2: Additional Fees in Case of Delay

Question 23 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · hard

Scenario. An investigation establishes that a partner and an employee knowingly participated in carrying on an LLP's business with the intent to defraud its creditors. The LLP is classified as a small LLP, and the participants argue that the special penalty concession should reduce the punishment under the fraud provision. Which punishment is prescribed for a person knowingly party to carrying on such fraudulent business?

An investigation establishes that a partner and an employee knowingly participated in carrying on an LLP's business with the intent to defraud its creditors. The LLP is classified as a small LLP, and the participants argue that the special penalty concession should reduce the punishment under the fraud provision. Which punishment is prescribed for a person knowingly party to carrying on such fraudulent business?

  1. Imprisonment up to two years and a fine between ₹50,000 and ₹5 lakh.
  2. Imprisonment up to five years and a fine between ₹10,000 and ₹5 lakh.
  3. Imprisonment up to three years and a fine between ₹25,000 and ₹5 lakh.
  4. Imprisonment up to five years and a fine not less than ₹50,000 but which may extend to ₹5 lakh. (correct answer)

Answer: D — Imprisonment up to five years and a fine not less than ₹50,000 but which may extend to ₹5 lakh.

Explanation. Section 30(2), as amended in 2021, prescribes imprisonment extending up to five years and a fine not less than ₹50,000 but which may extend to ₹5 lakh for every person knowingly party to carrying on business with the prescribed fraudulent intent. The provision is not restricted to partners alone. The primary distractor incorrectly reduces the minimum fine to ₹10,000 and overlooks the prescribed minimum of ₹50,000.

Where it goes wrong. Confusing the minimum criminal fine of ₹50,000 with the lower amounts applicable to certain administrative penalties.

Authority. Section 30(2) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008; Limited Liability Partnership (Amendment) Act, 2021

Question 24 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · medium

Scenario. A small LLP is required to file Form 4 for recording a change in its partners. Another LLP, which does not satisfy the small LLP definition, has to file the same form. Assume both are filing within the prescribed period and no additional fee is payable. According to the applicable MCA fee schedule, which statement correctly identifies the normal filing fee for each LLP?

A small LLP is required to file Form 4 for recording a change in its partners. Another LLP, which does not satisfy the small LLP definition, has to file the same form. Assume both are filing within the prescribed period and no additional fee is payable. According to the applicable MCA fee schedule, which statement correctly identifies the normal filing fee for each LLP?

  1. The small LLP pays ₹150 and the other LLP pays ₹50 for filing Form 4.
  2. Both LLPs pay ₹150 because Form 4 attracts a uniform normal filing fee.
  3. The small LLP pays ₹100 and the other LLP pays ₹200 for filing Form 4.
  4. The small LLP pays ₹50 and the other LLP pays ₹150 for filing Form 4. (correct answer)

Answer: D — The small LLP pays ₹50 and the other LLP pays ₹150 for filing Form 4.

Explanation. The MCA Instruction Kit for Form 4 prescribes a normal filing fee of ₹50 for a small LLP and ₹150 for an LLP that does not qualify as a small LLP. Since both forms are filed within the prescribed period, no additional delayed-filing fee applies. The primary distractor reverses the prescribed fee categories. This illustrates the differential filing-fee treatment available to small LLPs under the applicable fee framework.

Where it goes wrong. Reversing the prescribed normal filing fees applicable to small LLPs and other LLPs.

Authority. Section 69 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008; MCA Instruction Kit for LLP Form No. 4, Table 1: Normal Filing Fees

Question 25 · 2 marks · Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · hard

Scenario. An LLP's designated partner knowingly conducts its affairs fraudulently, causing financial loss to a supplier. The LLP argues that the supplier's only remedy is to pursue criminal proceedings against the designated partner and that compensation can be claimed only after conviction. The LLP also argues that it cannot be liable if the fraudulent employee acted without its knowledge. Which statement correctly applies Section 30(3)?

An LLP's designated partner knowingly conducts its affairs fraudulently, causing financial loss to a supplier. The LLP argues that the supplier's only remedy is to pursue criminal proceedings against the designated partner and that compensation can be claimed only after conviction. The LLP also argues that it cannot be liable if the fraudulent employee acted without its knowledge. Which statement correctly applies Section 30(3)?

  1. The supplier may claim compensation for loss or damage without treating criminal proceedings as the only remedy, subject to the statutory exception applicable to the LLP. (correct answer)
  2. The supplier can claim compensation only after the designated partner is convicted and the LLP is separately found guilty of fraud.
  3. The supplier cannot claim compensation because Section 30(3) applies exclusively to creditors who provided loans to the LLP.
  4. The LLP must compensate every loss even where the partner, designated partner or employee acted fraudulently without its knowledge.

Answer: A — The supplier may claim compensation for loss or damage without treating criminal proceedings as the only remedy, subject to the statutory exception applicable to the LLP.

Explanation. Section 30(3) creates a compensation obligation where the LLP or any partner, designated partner or employee conducts the LLP's affairs fraudulently, and any person suffers loss or damage because of that conduct. The remedy operates without prejudice to criminal proceedings, so conviction is not stated as a prerequisite. However, the LLP is not liable if the relevant partner, designated partner or employee acted fraudulently without its knowledge. The primary distractor incorrectly removes this statutory exception.

Where it goes wrong. Assuming that compensation requires a prior criminal conviction or that the LLP's statutory defence is unavailable.

Authority. Section 30(3) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

Authorities cited in this paper

Section 30(1) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · Section 28 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · Section 30(2) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · Limited Liability Partnership (Amendment) Act, 2021 · Section 30(3) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · Section 2(1)(ta) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · Section 2(1)(ta)(i) and (ii) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · Section 69 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · MCA Instruction Kit for LLP Form No. 8, Table 2: Additional Fees in Case of Delay · Section 76A(3) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · Section 32(1) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · Section 32(2) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · Rule 23(1) and Rule 23(2) of the Limited Liability Partnership Rules, 2009 · Section 33(1) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · Section 33(2) of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · Section 32 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 · MCA Instruction Kit for LLP Form No. 4, Table 1: Normal Filing Fees

Questions people ask

What does this Chapter 12: The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 - Test 3 practice test cover?

This practice test carries 50 marks across 25 questions covering core statutory provisions, judicial exceptions, compliance timelines, and practical thresholds.

How many questions are there and what is the time limit?

There are 25 questions carrying 2 marks each, giving a maximum score of 50 marks in 75 minutes with no negative marking.

Which statutory provisions are tested?

Questions strictly reflect the Companies Act 2013 and relevant Rules, following the ICAI Study Material relevant for the May 2027 examination attempt.

Is this test affiliated with ICAI?

No. This is an independent practice paper prepared for CA Intermediate students. It is not issued by or affiliated with ICAI.

Related

Other answer keys in this paper

Practice test by HeyArtha. Not issued by or affiliated with ICAI.